Queries :: Access 2007 - Update A Field In A Table With A Random Number / Long Integer
May 27, 2014
Is it possible to run a SQL command to update a field within a table with random numbers?
More specifically - random long integers linking back to an ID (autonumber) field in another table?
Background to this is, I have multiple static data tables related to each other by long integer identifiers (autonumbers)
The structure is fine but I haven't been provided with the actual data yet - but for development purposes, I need to work on other functionality which requires that this data be present.
So I want to fill my table with dummy data such that I can go off and work on the remaining functionality, but then just go back and clear it all out once I get the actual data.
I have one 'main' static table, which links back to other tables, which I have already populated with dummy static (i.e. company names, locations etc) Now I want to go into my main table and populate those fields in each record with a random ID. I don't mind doing this field-by-field (there's only a handful) but I've a lot of records in there (~1000) so I'd rather not do this record-by-record.
Have a table (tblDailyResults) with 4 fields (ID,TestName,Result,TestDate). It contains a snapshot of about 1,000 records. All fields have data except "Result", which is null. I also have a table (tblResults) with 3 fields (ID,TestName,Result), it contains about 100,000 Records of historical results. What I need to do is Update the "Result" field in "tblDailyResults" with a randomly select value from tblResults where the two testname match.
I'm trying to create a query that generates random numbers for each record, sorts them by that field, then selects the top record. This should randomize the record being selected.
I can use the Rnd([ID]) function which does appear to generate a random number. Problem is that each time I exit the program and come back in, it always selects the same record. When I remove the Top = 1, to show all the records, every row does have a different random number but it does not appear to be sorting by this field.
If I run the query, here is the number I get: 0.98609316349029
Exit the program, restart, and run the query again: 0.98609316349029
If I refresh the query, the second and third time does appear to be random but the first result is always the same. how to generate truly random numbers?
I have a form which allows the user to add new records to a table. After the user had entered all the information into the form, they click a command button to add the record. In addition to adding the new record, my command button runs an query which is supposed to generate a random number between 1 & 1,000,000,000 and update the record ID field with that number.
Here is the formula I have been using in the "update To" now of my query: Int((1000000000-1+1)*Rnd()+1)
My problem is that I keep getting duplicates. You would think that the chances of getting a duplicate number would be pretty small with this large of a range, but I get a duplicate almost every time.
I have tried indexing (No duplicates) the field in the table, but that did not work. When my query generated a duplicate number, the record was just not added to the table.
I also tried a two step approach: 1-Make a table of all in use record ID numbers from my table (tblIdNo) 2-Update new record with a random number that is not in tblIdNo
This was a no-go too
How to build an update query that will update each new record added to the table with a random number between 1 & 1,000,000,000 without any duplicates? This seems like it should be so simple, and I am starting to get really frustrated.
I would prefer to accomplish this through a query/queries (if possible) rather than with 100 lines of code. This database is not for me, it's for another group, and the individuals in this group are totally freaked out by code.
I have an autonumber field set up as long integer. The field just reached the value of 32670 and I get the overflow message. I thought a long integer could be much bigger than that before running into that problem.
I got around it by re-creating the field and starting from 1, but would rather know why it's doing it so I don't have users without their system.
I'm having problems Using Dcount function, when I use it with a text field like the following it works fine: (but using a Surname as a criteria can have problems.... I've people with the same surname in my database...)
times = DCount("[Surname]", "Booktoscore", "[Surname] = Forms!Teachers!Surname.value")
But, If I try to use it with a number, then it doesn't work, the problem seems to be with the criteria.... Because Access don't show me any msgbox with errors....
times = DCount("[IdCandidate]", "Booktoscore", "[IdCandidate] = Forms!Teachers!IdCandidate.Value")
Im working on an update query to add 2 zeros to the front of a field where it is less than 8 digits long. I'm not sure how to go about this, can anyone help me out?
hello all I am trying to set column values to a random number between 3 and 5
PMRatingTokenID: textH1: doubleYearID: textCode:UPDATE PMRating SET PMRating.H1 = (5+3-3)*Rnd()+3 This shows type mismatch error . What is the problem here..
When I run the analyzer on all object types it recommends to change the data type for field "zip" (zip code) to "long integer to:
"benefit that table and potentially other objects in my database"
The field type is currently set to text, And I have the same setting for the same field in a separate table, yet it does not come up with a recommendation for that table.
Additionally, I don't seem to have the option "long integer" for the field data type???
If you want to use a "DoCmd.RunSQL "INSERT INTO" command to insert data in a table and the data to insert comes from a table and a form, could this be done in one pass?
So...writing a record wit 4 values from table1 together with a additional value from a textbox in table2 as 5 values.
I have a query that returns several calculated fields. One of them is simply derived by simple summation of the others. If this calculated field returns a negative number, I need it to show as a zero.
The only way I know how to do this is by an IIF statement :
Code: SELECT [fld1], [fld2], [fl3], ..... IIF(([fld1]-[fld2]-fld[3])<0,0,([fld1]-[fld2]-fld[3])) AS fld4 FROM...
(The above doesn't suggest that [fld1], [fld2] etc are calculated fields - I just wrote it like that for succintness - they calculate fine, there's no issue with them...)
Is there a more efficient way of doing this? I find IIF's a bit tardy, possibly because they evaluate for both True & False eventualities, regardless of the condition, and this query is going to run against a fairly large dataset so any performance lag is going to be exacerbated.
Is it possible to create a query to select all dates from a given reference date? I don't mean all dates in a table - I mean all dates generally?
(The idea being to fill the first field in the resultant dataset with the list of dates, then run subqueries off that to fill the remaining calculated fields)
I'm currently using a date field in one of my tables to populate this first field (the full SQL is in a separate thread here)
But that was just a convenient way of getting a list of dates; the dates in that table don't actually have any significance to the resulting dataset (other than they should roughly overlap with the dates I'm looking for)
The flaw in that method is that the table from which I get those dates can only ever have dates up to and including yesterday. I also need to get today's date in there (and calculate the subqueries based on that date as well).
It's also possible - although unlikely - that there could be random dates missing from that table as well - in which case I need to plug those gaps and calculate my fields for those missing dates as well.
For clarity; that first field (AsOfDate) should contain every weekday from the earliest date in that table (i.e. Min([tblBalances].[BalanceDate]) up to and including today. It doesn't matter if any of the dates inbetween are missing from tblBalances as the subqueries will just return zeroes for those dates (which is exactly what I want to see).
I have a database that was built 5 years ago that has an auto field with an integer. There are relationships attached to this. I an rewriting it to simplify the database and I need to keep the relationships somehow. I want to make the auto field a text fields. How to work this out...
I can't display a 17 digit number in my table without losing the last couple of digits to 'rounding'. I've tried 'doubling' the field size but to no avail....whatever I attempt loses the last couple of digits to a 'nice round figure'.....
The numbers had initially been imported as text...which is really what they ought to be as they're identification numbers, but I had some issues using the find 'duplicate values' query and conjectured that was because the ID numbers had been defined as text---->though I could be wrong.
The VAL function works (to convert the text to numbers) but again -- I lose the detail of the last couple of digits.
I've been beating my head against this wall the entire day and at the very least, would like to know if what I'm attempting is viable. I've stumbled through function queries (with some success) and react like a deer in the headlights when it comes to VBA....
I am working on a form and need it to be able to generate a random number to use as an invoice number. The only parameters i need it to meet is that it is at least 5 digits in length. I was hoping i could use a button to make the number generate in a separate box.
I have an "order details" table that needs to populate a field called "Voucher" with data from another table called "codes". The "codes" table also has a true/false field called "allocated" because once allocated the code cannot be re-used.
I am trying to work out how to automatically allocate the next unallocated code in the "codes" table to each record in the "order details" table when that order details record has a DiscountID of "92".
Order Details Table Fields and conditions/criteria: ID - primary key DiscountID - only when the DiscountID = 92 Voucher - only populated when Discount ID = 92
Codes table Fields and conditions/criteria: ID - primary key code = text field with a code like "einstein01", "einstein02" Allocated = False
Is there a way to put the next available code into the order details record then mark that code as allocated in the codes table. Then, move on to the next order details record that has a discountID = 92, input the next unallocated code and mark that code etc. etc.
Ideally, I would like to do this to happen via an event when the Order forms button "Close" is clicked.
I have summarized a table(a) of 589 records into a table of 119 records(b).
I am trying to calculate a factor in (a) as a percentage of the total in (b) for each record in (a).
(a) can have multiple records for each corresponding, summarized record in (b).
I do this by dividing each of the many records in (a) by a summarized record in (b) with a common field in both.
Basically, I am dividing
Round(([(a)]![netchrg] / [(b)]![netchrg]),8)
All I get is 0.00000000
I have checked my join relationships. I started by checking the 2nd bubble. It did not work. Eventually, I have tried selecting all three bubbles on the joins and that does not get me any different values.
I would have thought that the 2nd bubble would have given me all of (a) and match it to the the records is (b) for the calculation.
I have even tried eliminating the joins completely but I still get a 0 value.
I have verified that both tables have values in the netchrg field.
In one table, I have a few fields. One of the field is "ItemSequence" and another one is "TotalPcs"."ItemSequence" is where user key in the sequence number for one or more item. 5 example for possible content of "ItemSequence" is as following :
1) 7 2) 4,6,9 3) 5-9 4) 3,5,9, 23-25 5) 3-5, 8-10
"TotalPcs" is the total number of items key in to "ItemSequence". For the 5 example above, the related "TotalPcs" should be as following:
1) 1 (1 item, which is item 7 alone) 2) 3 (3 item which is item 4, 6 and 9) 3) 5 (5 item which is item 5, 6, 7, 8 and 9) 4) 6 (6 item which is item 3, 5, 9, 23, 24 and 25 ) 5) 6 (6 item, which is item 3, 4, 5, 8, 9 and 10)
For time being, the user have to count manually to get the "TotalPcs". I wonder is there a way to calculate the "TotalPcs" by programming?
Basically, I am trying to calculate a integer number difference from two dates (TAT = Due-Date - Result_Date). The number is calculated and excludes weekends and ideally holidays (for that I have a tblHoliday but not sure how to use it). The function below seems to calculate a number but doesn't exclude weekends.
For example, if Due_Date is 9/26/2014 and Result_Date is 9/30/2014, then TAT is calculated to be 5 (should be 2).Since 9/26/2014 is a Friday only Friday and Monday are used in the calculation.
Code:
Option Compare Database Public Function WorkingDays(StartDate As Date, EndDate As Date) As Long Dim intCount As Long intCount = 0
I'm trying to insert 10% of a dataset from dbo_billing into another table Random_Temp. Another form is open when this query is to be ran that passess in the billyear and billmonth... I'm sure it's a syntax issue as I can isolate the random number part and it displays the appropriate data, I just can't re-write it to insert into the other table:
INSERT INTO Random_Temp ( indx, peopleId, audited ) SELECT TOP 10 PERCENT b.indx, b.peopleId, b.audited FROM dbo_Billing AS b WHERE (((b.billYear)=[Forms]![billing]![billyear]) AND ((b.billMonth)=[Forms]![billing]![billmonth]) AND ((b.recertifying)=-1)) ORDER BY Rnd(-(1000*b.indx)*Time());
I am programming an Acess Database, the primary data come from an excel sheet. Since Access one to many relationship only works for primary key and another field in another table as foreign key, I can't have normalized database.
I will explain what I mean with a hypothetical situation.
So, let's say I have two tables: WindowT1, CustomerT2.
WindowT1 has fields: WinID (the pk), WindowName. CustomerT2 fields include CustID (pk), CustomerName, WindowName, WinID.
So, in table "CustomerT2', WinID is the foreign key and I need that field filled in to make one-to-many relationship between these two tables to work. CustomerName and WindowName will be imported and prefilled already from an excel file with append query.
My question is can I make a update query (after the initial append query that brings in the data into Access) such that the criteria is matching WindowName (from CustomerT2) and the update would be the corresponding WinID (the pk number from WindowT1) that would be filled in the field WinID (in CustomerT2)? I know for this to work tables must have relationship and I did that.
Is there a better way to accomplish this task? i.e. through a form (remember info will be prefilled, so can't use combo box to fill in another form field) or maybe can I do this using the first append query (that brings in data)?
I am not good at Macro or VBA. The only thing I have done in code builder is After Update event in forms while using combo boxes. So, if there is no easier solution, I will try to deal with codes.
I'm using Microsoft Access 2010. I want to create a database that people without Microsoft Access can use. If I create a database is it possible to use VBA in Excel to update a table in Access and then run/export a query? I know you can use Excel to communicate with MS Access but can you do it when you don't have MS Access installed on your computer?
I have daily sales data that I want someone without MS Access to be able to load into the database and then export a query from.
