I have a table full of items that have a "date_updated" field. I'd like this field to be set to GETDATE() whenever a record is updated. I've got this trigger:
CREATE trigger tr_cp_shiptos_u on dbo.cp_shiptos for update as
update cp_shiptos set date_updated = GETDATE()
Problem is, of course, there's no WHERE clause..yet. I don't know how to refer to the record that was updated.... for example:
CREATE trigger tr_cp_shiptos_u on dbo.cp_shiptos for update as
update cp_shiptos set date_updated = GETDATE()
where shipto_id = @THIS_ID
I imagine there's some kind of builtin variable or something like that. How is this done?
I have a table of magazine issues. The table are defined as below: issueID int Uncheckedname varchar(50) Uncheckedtitle varchar(100) Checkeddescription varchar(500) CheckedcrntIssue bit Checkedarchived bit CheckednavOrder int CheckeddateCreate datetime Checked And here is what I want. Is there a way when inserting/updating or on the table itself to make sure that there is only one record that is marked as the current issue? The way I have it here in my table, any records can have the current issue (crntIssue) field checked. I only want one crntIssue field checked regardless of how many records or issues are in the table. If there is no way to automatically have SQL Server to manage that then that means I must check all the records before hand before the update/insert query, correct?
I have a old report that was pointing to a different database, and i changed the connection string for that report and changed the field names (As per my new stored Procedure). In some places I keep getting this run time error, i have tried looking for all the hidden references to this field and i cannot find any parameter that the old database had. The error messages that i get are as follows:
[rsFieldReference] The Hidden expression for the table €˜tblContactInfo€™ refers to the field €˜PL_Admin_ShowInKit€™. Report item expressions can only refer to fields within the current data set scope or, if inside an aggregate, the specified data set scope.
[rsFieldReference] The Hidden expression for the table €˜tblContactInfo€™ refers to the field €˜PL_FA_ShowInKit€™. Report item expressions can only refer to fields within the current data set scope or, if inside an aggregate, the specified data set scope.
[rsFieldReference] The Hidden expression for the table €˜tblWithdrawals€™ refers to the field €˜PW_Comment€™. Report item expressions can only refer to fields within the current data set scope or, if inside an aggregate, the specified data set scope.
Can Someone please help me out as to how should i get rid of these error messages, they are kinda driving me nuts.
Hi there,Could somebody post some simple example how one can refer toa column in the 'deleted' temporary table within a trigger definition ?Should the 'deleted' and 'inserted' temp tables be declared, or they are'implied' ?I keep having this msg when trying to create a trigger"The column prefix 'deleted' does not match with a table name or alias nameused in the query"Thanks for your inputs,Eddy.
Sorry for the less then descriptive post title but I didn't find a better way to describe it. I'm developing an app in the express editions of VB and SQLserver. The application is a task/resource scheduler. The main form will have a datepicker or weekly overview and show all tasks scheduled per day. The problem is, I've got one or more people assigned to tasks and I wonder what's the best way to design this. Personally, I'd go for one Task table, a People table and a table that provides a link between them (several record per task, one for each person assigned linking TaskID and PplID). However, I don't see a nice way of showing this data to the end user, allowing him to edit/add etc on ONE screen.
To fix that the only way I see is just add columns to the Task table for every person with select boxes. This way everything can be done on one simple screen. This obviously does present some future issues.
On top of this, which people are available on a day varies and there should be an option to allow a user to set who is available on a specific day. Which would lead me to my first idea and add another table that would provide this. but then I'm having design issues again for the form.
I'm kinda stuck atm, can anyone shed some light on this. I'm sure there is an elegant way of doing this but I'm failing at finding it.
Hey Forum, Below is a solution for passing a previous value (Height) to the current record in a view using two related tables (Plant= ID PK and plantHeight = ID FK) However, I was wondering how I could also do the reverse, that is, pass a next value to the current record.
I have an SSIS package (SQL Server 2005) that gathers statistics (ie total records created, items created, items shipped, etc). I have made a UNION query to get the data (because it has to look at different date fields) that returns the following results: ID QTY Created 20 Shipped 30 Received 35
What I what to do is store this data as 1 record like this: Date Qty_Created Qty_Shipped Qty_Received 11/20/2007 20 30 35
Hi every one I want to get the currently entered or updated record in the database table by using SQL Query or stored procedure. Thanx in advance Take care Bye
I'm a bit new to MS-SQL so i thought maybe you could help me.
This is my prob. I have an Access application that i have upsized to a MS-SQL server. I have a query based on 3 tables: Customers, Companys and Payreminders. When i run this query, i can't add new records or make any changes. If i only run the query with the tables: companys and payreminders i can add new records and edit them. If i run a query that's based on companys and customers, i can edit and add new records, but when i run the query based on companys and customers i can't add or edit records.
companys, payreminders: Editable payreminders, companys: Editable Companys, customers: Non editable Companys, payreminders, customers: Non editable
Something must go wrong when i use the companys and customers table. Can anybody help or give a suggestion what to do.
I have a table of magazine issues. The table are defined as below:
issueID int Unchecked name varchar(50) Unchecked title varchar(100) Checked description varchar(500) Checked crntIssue bit Checked archived bit Checked navOrder int Checked dateCreate datetime Checked
And here is what I want. Is there a way when inserting/updating or on the table itself to make sure that there is only one record that is marked as the current issue? The way I have it here in my table, any records can have the current issue (crntIssue) field checked. I only want one crntIssue field checked regardless of how many records or issues are in the table. If there is no way to automatically have SQL Server to manage that then that means I must check all the records before hand before the update/insert query, correct?
Well, I really messed up. Instead of changing the name of a current company record in a table I changed ALL the company names in the table. Me.CustomerDataSource.SelectCommand = "UPDATE tbl_customers SET company = '" & companyTextBox.Text & "'" So, I need to insert a WHERE clause to fix this. My problem is that I've been searching everywhere for this simple command structure and cannot find anything that specifically addresses a simple way to reference the current record. I tried...Me.CustomerDataSource.SelectCommand = "UPDATE tbl_customers SET company = '" & companyTextBox.Text & "' WHERE recno = @recno" But I get the error: Exception Details: System.Data.SqlClient.SqlException: Must declare the scalar variable "@recno". Can anyone provide this simple query clause?
How can we write a query to achieve this while keeping in mind:
- We do not want to do unnecessary record lookups and Updates - We only update records that corresponds to new entries. For example, we should not touch the record for InvoiceID = 2 in the above example
My current code returns account_number with multiple start_date regardless of the value is same or not. However, I would like to get only the account number when the value on start_date is different within same account_number.
select acct_number count(start_date) from table_A group by acct_number, start_date having(count(start_date) > 1)
I am writing a trigger to audit changes to certain columns. In the trigger I would like to record to the "Audit" table as much information about the current execution context as possible (current user, login, nt user, inputbuffer, etc.). I couldn`t find the way to find out what is the currently executed* stored procedure. @@PROCID returns object id for the trigger itself. Any help would be highly appreciated as this is an urgent production environment issue.
HI if I have a recrod in a plain text file , and it has some colums information including FromDate and ThruDates if the date range is over 30 days, Then the record should split and becomes 2 records rather then one.
for example: if i have MemberID=255 FromDate 07/01/06 and ThruDate = 08/25/06
than that single record should be saved as two records
Well the file is a fixed length file. On a web page. Page is uploaded. when the fixed length file is uploaded it converted into the xml file. After the xml file goes through the validation, it gets ready for the database. Each field in the fixed length file was a xml node and sent to the database.
Now what I have to check from the sqlManagement studio. Insert a query with the test query as I decribed earlier, and instead of it get to the database it should be splited into two record instead of one and get in the database table. And if dates are in between 30 days, then the recrod go into table with out any other issue.
I have a table where I need to set some rows to Read only (to protect the rows from being edited). Can I do this with a trigger checking against a column (where dataReadOnly = 1)?
Do anybody know how can I find or display to the current SQL server 2005 record number (eg. 10 of 1600) on a VB 2005 form label. The BindingNavigator on the form has been deleted. Thanks.
I have created a Insert Trigger on a Table A. And I am inserting a Record on a Table A, then Trigger which binds on a Table A will fire immediately.
My doubt is, Will the Transaction(Action) be considered as a Single Transaction(both Row Insertion on a Table and followed by Trigger action) or two different Transactions.
And what will happen if Trigger Fails if it is a Single Transaction?.
I need help for this: I need to make trigger which makes rollback if INSERT- or UPDATE-statement try to make dublicate row (col1+col2) I try this, but it don't work:
CREATE TRIGGER trg_col1_col2_check ON TABLE1 AFTER INSERT,UPDATE AS BEGIN SET NOCOUNT ON IF (SELECT DISTINCT 1 FROM TABLE1 GROUP BY col1, col2 HAVING count(*) > 1) = 1 BEGIN IF (SELECT case when (i.col1 = '' AND i.col2 = '') then 0 else 1 end FROM INSERTED i) = 1 BEGIN Print 'Col1 and col2 Already exist' ROLLBACK END END END
I have the following working correctly as a trigger, however, I want to change one of the values (2016) to calculate the current year's value.. so in 2017, it would put 2017.
CREATE TRIGGER TRG_NEW_EQUIPMENT ON ATHLETE AFTER INSERT AS BEGIN INSERT INTO Equipment (Equipment_ID, Equipment_Model, Equipment_Year, Equipment_Brand, Equipment_Color, Equipment_Condition_Rating) VALUES ('150','Big Spin','2016','K2','Blue','5') END; GO
Hello...i have a table that record all the reading meter....so when i change one of the reader meter data...in logical it will automatically change the normalized fields...
Reading teble ------------------- -id[PK] -meter -normalized -date when i insert new record..i just insert data about date and meter...an normalized is automated calculate using my function..the problem is..when i have data more than one...when i try insert or update or delete data...it nee to be automatically calculate back the normalized..i know this is needed the temperory table and then reinsert back..how can i solve this problem???
Approximately once a month, a client of ours sends us a bunch ofcomma-delimited text files which I have to clean up and then importinto their MS SQL database. All last week, I was using a Cold Fusionscript to upload the cleaned up files and then import the records theycontained into the database, though obviously, the process tookfriggin' forever, and could have been done 500x quicker had I done itdirectly on the server. My SQL knowledge is somewhat limited, however,so I had no choice but to stick to what I know, which is Cold Fusionprogramming.In the process of cleaning up some of these comma-delimited text files,I inadvertently messed up some of the 10-digit zip codes, by applyingthe wrong Excel formula to the ZIP columns. These records were importedinto the database with obviously incorrect zip codes (ie: singledigit). So now, I have to find the best and quickest way possible tocompare these records in the database (that have the single digit zipcodes) with the unmodified data, and to update the zip codes with thecorrect data.I've had no luck setting up a TEXT file as an ODBC datasource, -- soI've ruled that out completely. I've also managed to import theunmodified data into an Access database, and to set it up as a ColdFusion datasource. But it seems this 2nd road I've been traveling downis not the ideal approach either.My question is, -- assuming that I'll be able to import the recordsfrom the Access database into their own table on the SQL server, -- howshould I go about the process of updating these records that have theincorrect zip codes?Here is the specific logic I would need to employ:* Here is a list of records, each of which contains an incorrect1-digit zip code (Database A / Table A)* Here is a much longer list of records (which contains all of therecords from Database A / Table A + thousands more), each of whichcontains a correct 5-digit zip code (Database B / Table B)* Compare both lists of records and run the following query/update:When a record in Database A / Table A has matching "name", "address1",and "address2" values as a record in Database B / Table B -- update therecord in Database B / Table B with the zip code from the matchingrecord in Database A / Table A.Would anyone care to write a sample query for me that I could rundirectly on the SQL server, or at least give me some pointers?The specific field names are as follows:name,address1,address2,city,state,zipThanks in advance!- yvan
I like to give First Name and Last Name in two different text box and then hit the delete button (command button). Then it will do a query to find the person and delete the corresponding record from the table. Any kind of help will be appreciated. Thank you.
This is part of my trigger on table T1. I am trying to check if the records inserted to T1 is available in myDB.dbo.myTable or not (destination table). If it is available rollback T1. It does not do that although I insert the same records twice.
-- duplicate record check SET @step = 'Duplicate record' IF EXISTS ( SELECT i.myID, i.Type FROM INSERTED i INNER JOIN myDB.dbo.myTable c ON i.myID = c.myID GROUP BY i.myID, i.Type HAVING (COUNT(*) > 1) AND (i.Type = 'In') ) BEGIN ROLLBACK transaction RAISERROR('Error: step: %s. rollback is done.', 16, 1, @step) Return END
here is my trigger that i have right now the only problem is that it deletes the records before copying everything into the db i dont what do delete everything i just whant to catch the updated record and then update the other tables same record in the other db how would i do this:
right now i have this
CREATE TRIGGER test ON [dbo].[TEST123] AFTER INSERT, UPDATE, DELETE AS IF @@ROWCOUNT = 0 RETURN
IF (COLUMNS_UPDATED() & 2 = 2) DELETE FROM pubs..TEST123 WHERE test3 = '300' INSERT INTO pubs..TEST123 SELECT * FROM TEST123 WHERE test3 = '300' UPDATE pubs..TEST123 SET test1 = 'X' WHERE test1 IS NULL AND test3 = '300' UPDATE pubs..TEST123 SET test2 = 'X' WHERE test2 IS NULL AND test3 = '300' UPDATE pubs..TEST123 SET test3 = 'X'
I have a table with a field that contains the record number. This field is an identity column that is needed to be compatible with old Clipper programs. I've to ensure continuity in the numbering. So I have to update those numbers each time one or several records are deleted. I was thinking of using a trigger but I'm quite novice in this domain and don't know how to do it. Does anyone have a solution for this problem ?
Hello All,I have 2 tables in a MS SQL DB. Table1 and Table2.LogTable2.Log was a copy of Table1 + an extra column for date_deleted. Ihave 2 Triggers on Table1, Insert and delete. So when a record isinserted into Table1 it's copied onto Table2.log, and when deleted inTable1 the same record in Table2.log is time stamped with time ofdeletion.I would like to have another Trigger on Table1 for update. So if acertain field (not primary key) is updated for a record it is alsoupdated in Table2.log This way Table2.log will always have exactly thesame fields per record as Table1.I'm not sure how to reference the modified records only and updatejust the modified fields...something like...?----------------------------CREATE TRIGGER [tr_updateT_Log] ON [dbo].Table1FOR UPDATEASUpdate Table2.LogSET description = , office =-------------------------------------------------Any help would be greatly appreciatedThanksY
I have a parent table with 27 Columns and Child Table with 37 colums - when even there is an update in any of the columns on Parent or Child table, I require new record inserted into Audit_Parent and Audit_child table. Please help with SQL Code on Create Trigger and insert records into Audit_parent and Audit_child when an Update occurs on any of the columns. Insert into AuditParent and AuditChild should occur whenever there is an update on either Parent or child table.
Am in a small fix. my Trigger is updating my entire table records , i don't want that, i want to update a column in the record that is updated by my application using a trigger that tracks updates on that table.
Is there a way i can track the updated record on my table and then update a field in that record through my TRIGGER?
My database is MSSQLServer2005 Enterprise Edition..
Below is my code
CREATE TRIGGER [TR_Employee] ON [Test_1_1].[dbo].[Employee] For UPDATE Not For Replication AS BEGIN
Update Employee set Last_Changed = (select getDate())
