The other day I was asked to build a SQL Server process to terminate blocking sessions that could be safely destroyed in order not to drain necessary instance resources. The solution is made of below stored procedure and by a SQL Server Agent jobs that runs every 3 minutes just to invoke the sproc. The T-SQL code should be easy to read and has plenty of remarks.
USE [<<yourDBAgoodStuffDatabase...>>]
GO
SET ANSI_NULLS ON
GO
I have some code that I need to run every quarter. I have many that are similar to this one so I wanted to input two parameters rather than searching and replacing the values. I have another stored procedure that's executed from this one that I will also parameter-ize. The problem I'm having is in embedding a parameter in the name of the called procedure (exec statement at the end of the code). I tried it as I'm showing and it errored. I tried googling but I couldn't find anything related to this. Maybe I just don't have the right keywords. what is the syntax?
CREATE PROCEDURE [dbo].[runDMQ3_2014LDLComplete] @QQ_YYYY char(7), @YYYYQQ char(8) AS begin SET NOCOUNT ON; select [provider group],provider, NPI, [01-Total Patients with DM], [02-Total DM Patients with LDL],
I'm updating some tables in a subscriber database with a stored procedure. After the tables get updated I'd like to sync them with the other subscriber dbs and the publisher db in that same stored procedure.I can do it manually in SSMS with the View Synchronization method. Are my only alternatives a batch job or C#?
In general as understand if we have a stored procedure that does operations like inserts or updates, it makes perfect sense to use a rollback operation within a transaction.
So, if something goes wrong and the transaction does not complete, all changes will be reverted and an error description will be thrown for example.
Nevertheless, does using a rollback within a try catch statement, make sense in a read only stored procedure, that practically executes some dynamic sql just to select data from some tables?
I have around 100 Stored procedures, all of them read only. Today a colleague suggested adding try-catch blocks with rollback to all of them. But since they are just selecting data, I don't see a clear benefit of doing so, compared to the hassle of changing such a big number of SP's.
We are collecting values in a string format with delimeteres and sending to DB .We would like to insert the data in Bulk insert format rather than splitting the same and then inserting..
In sql 2014 can we archive the same..sample format currently we are getting the client is like this is
Saleid$ salename$month$year$totalsale#Saleid$salename$month$year$totalsale# has a dataset.
I have a need to insert stored procedure output a table and in addition to that add a datetimestamp column.. For example, Below is the process to get sp_who output into Table_Test table. But I want to add one additional column in Table_test table with datetimestamp when the procedure was executed.
I've managed to get my Instance connected to the internet and I can query it using PHP and SQL, I can also look at views with no problem.
I have it working as an "ADODB.Connection" and like I said it connects and I can query data and display results.
Now I have coded a Stored Proc "GetMonthDays" in Sql Server:
Which returns days 1 through xxx in a given month and also returns the Day name eg... Sat for each date
2014-01-01 Thurs 2014-01-02 Fri etc...
It works perfectly and very fast so All cool with that side BUT... I want to be able to query the Database through a Stored Proc, I've spent all day trying to find a way to get this to work and I've hit a wall
I need a script that inserts the data of an excel sheet into a table. If something already exists it should leave it, unless it's edited in the excel sheet and so on and so on. This proces has to go through a stored procedure... ...But how?
I am trying to execute a stored procedure to update a table and I am getting Invalid Object Name. I am create a cte named Darin_Import_With_Key and I am trying to update table [dbo].[Darin_Address_File]. If I remove one of the update statements it works fine it just doesn't like trying to execute both. The message I am getting is Msg 208, Level 16, State 1, Line 58 Invalid object name 'Darin_Import_With_Key'.
BEGIN SET NOCOUNT ON; WITH Darin_Import_With_Key AS ( SELECT [pra_id] ,[pra_ClientPracID]
I have simple query which creates tables by passing database name as parameter from a parameter table .
SP1 --> creates databases and calls SP2--> which creates tables . I can run it fine via SSMS but when I run it using SSIS it fails with below error .The issue gets more interesting when it fails randomly on some database creation and some creates just fine .
Note** I am not passing any database of name '20'
Exception handler error :
ERROR :: 615 :: Could not find database ID 20, name '20'. The database may be offline. Wait a few minutes and try again. ---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- SPID: 111 Origin: SQL Stored Procedure (SP1) ---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- Could not find database ID 20, name '20'. The database may be offline. Wait a few minutes and try again. ----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Error in SSIS
[Execute SQL Task] Error: Executing the query "EXEC SP1" failed with the following error: "Error severity levels greater than 18 can only be specified by members of the sysadmin role, using the WITH LOG option.". Possible failure reasons: Problems with the query, "ResultSet" property not set correctly, parameters not set correctly, or connection not established correctly.I have sysadmin permission .
Is there a way using a stored procedure in a local database to add a record to a database executing in a cloud environment when both entities reside in different domains?
Is there a way to keep track in real time on how long a stored procedure is running for? So what I want to do is fire off a trace in a stored procedure if that stored procedure is running for over like 5 minutes.
When viewing an estimated query plan for a stored procedure with multiple query statements, two things stand out to me and I wanted to get confirmation if I'm correct.
1. Under <ParameterList><ColumnReference... does the xml attribute "ParameterCompiledValue" represent the value used when the query plan was generated?
2. Does each query statement that makes up the execution plan for the stored procedure have it's own execution plan? And meaning the stored procedure is made up of multiple query plans that could have been generated at a different time to another part of that stored procedure?
I have a stored procedure and in that I will be calling a stored procedure. Now, based on the parameter value I will get stored procedure name to be executed. how to execute dynamic sp in a stored rocedure
at present it is like EXECUTE usp_print_list_full @ID, @TNumber, @ErrMsg OUTPUT
I want to do like EXECUTE @SpName @ID, @TNumber, @ErrMsg OUTPUT
I want to analyze procedure cache, to find inefficient plans and parameter issues.
I do it trow DMV But my requests to DMV are very slow and demand resources because procedure cache is about several GB Actually I dont need on-line analysis.
Is it possible to have fast snapshot of procedure cache?
I created a simple procedure in SQL Server Management Studio 2014. When I run it I see my query results but not my return value. Do I have to change settings to see the return value?
CREATE PROCEDURE temp AS BEGIN SELECT GetDate() FROM mytable RETURN 1 END EXEC temp
I am curious what other people have done to implement read-only routing for a large number of procedures.
Basically figuring out when to call procedures that are read-only with read-only intent.
We have a user application that passes an encrypted string to a web service that directs it to our SQL Servers.
I've been tasked with finding a way to make this happen without changing the application.
The only thing I have been able to come up with is writing something (which I did) that will identify whether something is read-only or not and storing a big list.
Then having the web service look up the given procedure and adding the intent where needed.
Is there any way to enforce table references in stored procedures? For Example, we have stored procedures with a ton of different formats, "dbo.table", "table", "db.dbo.table", etc. Can we make it so that for every stored procedure, the reference must be at least "dbo.table"?
We have a high volume database with 1000's of users and 1000's of procs. Our application enforces a 20 second timeout on all connections.
We can't adjust the 20 seconds - this is a business rule.
It sometimes happens that a proc does not complete within 20 seconds and then times out halfway though. This causes data inconsistency where 50% of the code was saved to the DB and 50% was not - seeing that a stored proc is not transactional and therefor does not roll back the code.
We can't put the code in a TRANSACTION in order to roll back when a time out occurs, because this causes exclusive locks on the tables.
So I guess my question is: Is it possible to undo/rollback all the code in a proc when a timeout occurs - without using a TRANSACTION? And if a TRANSACTION is the only way - how do I avoid the exclusive lock and blocks?
I am looking for a table where Maintenance Clean Up Task configuration is stored. For example, Delete file older than the following - which is 2 days. Which table can I retrieve the setting in msdb ?
On SQL 2012 (64bit) I have a CLR stored procedure that calls another, T-SQL stored procedure.
The CLR procedure passes a sizeable amount of data via a user defined table type resp.table values parameter. It passes about 12,000 rows with 3 columns each.
For some reason the call of the procedure is verz very slow. I mean just the call, not the procedure.
I changed the procdure to do nothing (return 1 in first line).
So with all parameters set from
command.ExecuteNonQuery()to create proc usp_Proc1 @myTable myTable read only begin return 1 end
it takes 8 seconds.I measured all other steps (creating the data table in CLR, creating the SQL Param, adding it to the command, executing the stored procedure) and all of them work fine and very fast.
When I trace the procedure call in SQL Profiler I get a line like this for each line of the data table (12,000)
SP:StmtCompleted -- Encrypted Text.
As I said, not the procedure or the creation of the data table takes so long, really only the passing of the data table to the procedure.
public Set DoSomthing(Set toBeProcessed, Set measuresToWorkWith)The set measurseToWorkWith is passed as {[Measures].[Measure1], [Measures].[Measure2] ...}
with the measures being real or query-scoped calculated members.
To get the value of the measure for each tuple in the set toBeProcessed, I create an Expression for each tuple (measure) in the set measuresToWorkWith then for each tuple in toBeProcessed call expression.Calculate(tuple) which returns a MDXValue.
My problem is that in order to make the code generic I need to get the real (.NET) data type of the MDXValue. The class only has explicit conversion methods ToInt16() etc which implies that the data type is known at design time.
However, if one of the measures is a query-scoped calculation then it could return a .NET double, int, bool or string.
If the measure is real then I can look up its metadata. However, it appears that if it is a formula (scoped member) then are all bets are off?
Hi all - I'm trying to optimized my stored procedures to be a bit easier to maintain, and am sure this is possible, not am very unclear on the syntax to doing this correctly. For example, I have a simple stored procedure that takes a string as a parameter, and returns its resolved index that corresponds to a record in my database. ie exec dbo.DeriveStatusID 'Created' returns an int value as 1 (performed by "SELECT statusID FROM statusList WHERE statusName= 'Created') but I also have a second stored procedure that needs to make reference to this procedure first, in order to resolve an id - ie: exec dbo.AddProduct_Insert 'widget1' which currently performs:SET @statusID = (SELECT statusID FROM statusList WHERE statusName='Created')INSERT INTO Products (productname, statusID) VALUES (''widget1', @statusID) I want to simply the insert to perform (in one sproc): SET @statusID = EXEC deriveStatusID ('Created')INSERT INTO Products (productname, statusID) VALUES (''widget1', @statusID) This works fine if I call this stored procedure in code first, then pass it to the second stored procedure, but NOT if it is reference in the second stored procedure directly (I end up with an empty value for @statusID in this example). My actual "Insert" stored procedures are far more complicated, but I am working towards lightening the business logic in my application ( it shouldn't have to pre-vet the data prior to executing a valid insert). Hopefully this makes some sense - it doesn't seem right to me that this is impossible, and am fairly sure I'm just missing some simple syntax - can anyone assist?
