I have a single update statement that updates the same column multipletimes in the same update statement. Basically i have a column thatlooks like .184.108.40.206. which are id references that need to be updatedwhen a group of items is copied. I can successfully do this withcursors, but am experimenting with a way to do it with a single updatestatement.I have verified that each row being returned to the Update statement(in an Update..From) is correct, but that after the first update to acolumn, the next row that does an update to that same row/column combois not using the updated data from the first update to that column.Does anybody know of a switch or setting that can make this work, or doI need to stick with the cursors?Schema detail:if exists( select * from sysobjects where id = object_id('dbo.ScheduleTask') and type = 'U')drop table dbo.ScheduleTaskgocreate table dbo.ScheduleTask (Id int not null identity(1,1),IdHierarchy varchar(200) not null,CopyTaskId int null,constraint PK_ScheduleTask primary key nonclustered (Id))goUpdate query:Update ScheduleTask SetScheduleTask.IdHierarchy = Replace(ScheduleTask.IdHierarchy, '.' +CAST(TaskCopyData.CopyTaskId as varchar) + '.', '.' +CAST(TaskCopyData.Id as varchar) + '.')FromScheduleTaskINNER JOIN ScheduleTask as TaskCopyData ONScheduleTask.CopyTaskId IS NOT NULL ANDTaskCopyData.CopyTaskId IS NOT NULL ANDcharindex('.' + CAST(TaskCopyData.CopyTaskId as varchar) + '.',ScheduleTask.IdHierarchy) > 0Query used to verify that data going into update is correct:selectScheduleTask.Id, TaskCopyData.Id, ScheduleTask.IdHierarchy, '.' +CAST(TaskCopyData.CopyTaskId as varchar) + '.', '.' +CAST(TaskCopyData.Id as varchar) + '.'FromScheduleTaskINNER JOIN ScheduleTask as TaskCopyData ONScheduleTask.CopyTaskId IS NOT NULL ANDTaskCopyData.CopyTaskId IS NOT NULL ANDcharindex('.' + CAST(TaskCopyData.CopyTaskId as varchar) + '.',ScheduleTask.IdHierarchy) > 0
I am new to this forum and pretty new to running queries in SQL Server. I have been doing it for years on an iSeries platform and the following update statement would definitely work in SQL/400....but it does not in SQL Server 2000. Any help would be appreciated.
UPDATE TESTDTA.F0101 X SET (ABAC07, ABAC12, ABAC28) = (SELECT AIAC07, AIAC12, AIAC28 FROM TESTDTA.F03012 WHERE AIAN8 = X.ABAN8) WHERE EXISTS(SELECT AIAC07 FROM TESTDTA.F03012 WHERE AIAN8 = X.ABAN8)
...and here are the errors
Server: Msg 170, Level 15, State 1, Line 1 Line 1: Incorrect syntax near 'X'. Server: Msg 156, Level 15, State 1, Line 5 Incorrect syntax near the keyword 'WHERE'.
I am trying to update the same row of the table multiple times. in other words, i am trying to replace the two stings on same row with two different values.
Example: if the column has a string "b" then replace with "B" and if the column has a string "d" then replace with "D" . I can write multiple updates to update it but i was just wondering if it can be done with single UPDATE statement
column before the update : bcdxyz after the update: BcDxyz
Problem Summary: Merge Statement takes several times longer to execute than equivalent Update, Insert and Delete as separate statements. Why?
I have a relatively large table (about 35,000,000 records, approximately 13 GB uncompressed and 4 GB with page compression - including indexes). A MERGE statement pretty consistently takes two or three minutes to perform an update, insert and delete. At one extreme, updating 82 (yes 82) records took 1 minute, 45 seconds. At the other extreme, updating 100,000 records took about five minutes.When I changed the MERGE to the equivalent separate UPDATE, INSERT & DELETE statements (embedded in an explicit transaction) the entire update took only 17 seconds. The query plans for the separate UPDATE, INSERT & DELETE statements look very similar to the query plan for the combined MERGE. However, all the row count estimates for the MERGE statement are way off.
Obviously, I am going to use the separate UPDATE, INSERT & DELETE statements. The actual query plans for the four statements ( combined MERGE and the separate UPDATE, INSERT & DELETE ) are attached. SQL Code to create the source and target tables and the actual queries themselves are below. I've also included the statistics created by my test run. Nothing else was running on the server when I ran the test.
SQL Server 2008 R2 SP1, Enterprise Edition 3 x Quad-Core Xeon Processor Max Degree of Parallelism = 8 148 GB RAM
Target Table: USE TPS; IF OBJECT_ID('dbo.ParticipantResponse') IS NOT NULL DROP TABLE dbo.ParticipantResponse;
Hi, I'm trying to inner join an update statement. Something like this:
update #point_connection_temp AS a inner join #point_connection_temp_two as b on a.key_fld = b.key_fld set a.next_point = b.next_point where #point_connection_temp.next_point is null order by a.key_fld
I'm getting an error message:Incorrect syntax error near AS Any help will be greatly appreciated.Thank you!!!!!!!!!1
I have used the below update query. However, its updating only the first value. Like its updating AB with volume when c.Type = ABC, similarly for CD. Its not updating based on the 2nd or the next case condition.
Update XYZ Set AB = a.Amt * (CASE WHEN c.Type = 'ABC' THEN (c.volume) WHEN c.TYPE = 'DEF' THEN (c.volume) WHEN c.Type = 'GHI' THEN (c.volume) Else 0 END), CD = CASE WHEN c.Type = 'MARGIN' THEN '4105.31' WHEN c.Type = 'ABC' THEN '123.1' WHEN c.Type = 'DEF' THEN '234.2' WHEN c.Type = 'GHI' THEN '567.1' END from table1 a join table2 b on a.Cust = b.Customer join table3 c on b.account = c.account and b.channel =c.channel
Why its not working properly? But if i use Select statement instead of update query its working properly.
I am currently having this problem with gridview and detailview. When I drag either onto the page and set my select statement to pick from one table and then update that data through the gridview (lets say), the update works perfectly. My problem is that the table I am pulling data from is mainly foreign keys. So in order to hide the number values of the foreign keys, I select the string value columns from the tables that contain the primary keys. I then use INNER JOIN in my SELECT so that I only get the data that pertains to the user I am looking to list and edit. I run the "test query" and everything I need shows up as I want it. I then go back to the gridview and change the fields which are foreign keys to templates. When I edit the templates I bind the field that contains the string value of the given foreign key to the template. This works great, because now the user will see string representation instead of the ID numbers that coinside with the string value. So I run my webpage and everything show up as I want it to, all the data is correct and I get no errors. I then click edit (as I have checked the "enable editing" box) and the gridview changes to edit mode. I make my changes and then select "update." When the page refreshes, and the gridview returns, the data is not updated and the original data is shown. I am sorry for so much typing, but I want to be as clear as possible with what I am doing. The only thing I can see being the issue is that when I setup my SELECT and FROM to contain fields from multiple tables, the UPDATE then does not work. When I remove all of my JOIN's and go back to foreign keys and one table the update works again. Below is what I have for my SQL statements:------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- SELECT:SELECT People.FirstName, People.LastName, People.FullName, People.PropertyID, People.InviteTypeID, People.RSVP, People.Wheelchair, Property.[House/Day Hab], InviteType.InviteTypeName FROM (InviteType INNER JOIN (Property INNER JOIN People ON Property.PropertyID = People.PropertyID) ON InviteType.InviteTypeID = People.InviteTypeID) WHERE (People.PersonID = ?)UPDATE:UPDATE [People] SET [FirstName] = ?, [LastName] = ?, [FullName] = ?, [PropertyID] = ?, [InviteTypeID] = ?, [RSVP] = ?, [Wheelchair] = ? WHERE [PersonID] = ? ---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------The only fields I want to update are in [People]. My WHERE is based on a control that I use to select a person from a drop down list. If I run the test query for the update while setting up my data source the query will update the record in the database. It is when I try to make the update from the gridview that the data is not changed. If anything is not clear please let me know and I will clarify as much as I can. This is my first project using ASP and working with databases so I am completely learning as I go. I took some database courses in college but I have never interacted with them with a web based front end. Any help will be greatly appreciated.Thank you in advance for any time, help, and/or advice you can give.Brian
I am trying write a query to update a column of data in my xLegHdr table however the update is based on multiple criteria. I was trying to use "IF..ELSE" statements but that is not working.
I would like to update the "SMiles" column based on the data in the "Dist" column. If the number in the "Dist" column is less than 250 then subtract 25 and multiply it by 1.15 the result should go in the "SMiles" column. If the number is grater than 250 then subtract 40 and multiply by 1.15 and place the result in the "SMiles" column; like so:
UPDATE xLegHdr SET SMiles = IF Dist<250 THEN Round(Dist-25)*1.15) ELSE Round(Dist-40)*1.15) END IF
I am writting a bit of SQL that takes data from one table then inserts it into another one. There is a field that can be any value (and is usually null), but when I insert the value in the new table then I want to execute:
IF table.field>0 then tabl2.field='400'. In other words for every row in the selection that has a field that is greater than 0 then '400' will be put into the new table.
I am not sure if the IF stamement can loop through a number of rows and execute depending on the value of a field in that row??
and i have also another table which is namelist that is linked to the masterlist table.. after i search for the record andrew in the table namelist..i updated andrew as 25 and sex is female..now i want reset andrew's record, same to the records that andrew has in the table masterlist..
I want to do an update query like the following:UPDATE tblUserDetails SET DeploymentNameID = 102 WHERE (EmployeeNumber = @selectedusersparam)Is there some simple way to add the @selectedusersparam as value1,value2,value3 etc. or do I have to input it with this type of syntax:UPDATE dbo_tblUserDetails SET dbo_tblUserDetails.DeploymentNameID = 102WHERE (((dbo_tblUserDetails.EmployeeNumber)=value1 Or (dbo_tblUserDetails.EmployeeNumber)=value2));Help appreciated.Many thanks.
I am renovating an existing application and am converting the existing passwords into hashed values using SHA1. I know how to compute the hashed values as a byte array for each record. What I don't know how to do easily is update all of the records i a single call to the database. Normally, I would just do the following:UPDATE HashedPassword = someValue WHERE UserID = 101; UPDATE HashedPassword = someOtherValue WHERE UserID = 102; ...
What I don't know is what someValue and someOtherValue should be. How do I convert my byte array into string representation that SQL will accept? I usually execute multiple statements using Dim oCmd as New SqlCommand(sSQL, MyConn) and then call oCmd.ExecuteNonQuery(). Alternatively, I found the following code that uses the byte array directly but only shows a single statement. How could I use it to execute multiple statements as shown above?'FROM http://aspnet.4guysfromrolla.com/articles/103002-1.2.aspx
'2. Create a command object for the query Dim strSQL as String = _ "INSERT INTO UserAccount(Username,Password) " & _ "VALUES(@Username, @Password)" Dim objCmd as New SqlCommand(strSQL, objConn)
'3. Create parameters Dim paramUsername as SqlParameter paramUsername = New SqlParameter("@Username", SqlDbType.VarChar, 25) paramUsername.Value = txtUsername.Text objCmd.Parameters.Add(paramUsername)
Dim paramPwd as SqlParameter paramPwd = New SqlParameter("@Password", SqlDbType.Binary, 16) paramPwd.Value = hashedBytes objCmd.Parameters.Add(paramPwd)
'Insert the records into the database objConn.Open() objCmd.ExecuteNonQuery() objConn.Close()
I am trying to query the Topics in my discussion forum...The Topic contains a "last_poster_id" and a "author_id" I need the username and userid for both "last_poster_id" and "author_id" in the table "aspnet_Users"How do I do this?I would guess I need to use sub select statements. Can someone help me?
I have a situation where I run the same taks multiple times during the execution. I would like to have one task which runs every time, instead of duplicating the task over and over 14 times in my script.
Basically, it is an audit log, which I set variables and then insert into a SQL table the variables.
I would like to do this:
Task1 ------Success-----> Set Vars -----Success--> Log | Task2 ------Success-----> Set Vars -----Success-| (do the Log task again) | Task3 -------Success-----> Set Vars -----Success-| (do the Log task again) | etc
This works, however, I have to duplicate Log over and over and over. No OR does not work, because it still only executes the Log task once.
Another option I thought of, but cannot find a way to implement is: Make the Log task "disabled" with no dependencies, then in the Set Vars script, enable and execute Log and disable again.
After doing some research it seems like you can only push the same table once using rda.push -- is this correct? If yes, are there any other alternatives for saving changes to the table back to SQL Server aside from merge replication?
One idea I am toying with is to pull the tracked table with 0 records, save changes to the tracked table, push, drop table and pull, repeating this process everytime I push the data. Wondering is somebody has any advice?
Hey all, I am still pretty new to all of this and I am having problems accessing a the same DB twice in my page. I want to pull information once in one spot, but then pull different information in a different spot on the page. Anyway, in the first spot, I have the following code: Dim conString As String = WebConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings("DataConn").ConnectionString Dim con As New SqlConnection(conString)Dim cmd As New SqlCommand("Select Team1.TeamID as Team1ID, Team1.TeamName as HomeTeam, Team2.TeamID as Team2ID, Team2.TeamName as AwayTeam, Football_Schedule.ScheduleID as ScheduleID from (Select * from Football_Teams) as Team1, (Select * from Football_Teams) as Team2, Football_Schedule where Football_schedule.team1 = Team1.teamid AND Football_Schedule.team2 = Team2.teamid order by Football_Schedule.WeekNum, Team1.TeamName, Team2.Teamname", con)Using con con.Open() Dim RS As SqlDataReader = cmd.ExecuteReader() While RS.Read() blah blah blah End While End Using
Then in my other spot on the page I have the following: Dim cmdresults As New SqlCommand("Select Users.Firstname, sum(PointsID) as TotalPoints from Football_Input, Football_Schedule, Users where Football_Input.TeamID = Football_Schedule.winID and users.userid = Football_Input.UserID Group by Users.firstname") Using con con.Open()Dim RD As SqlDataReader = cmdresults.ExecuteReader() While RD.Read()%> <tr> <td><%=RD%> </td> </tr> <%End While End Using When I try to execute I get this error, "ExecuteReader: Connection property has not been initialized." on the following line, " RD As SqlDataReader = cmdresults.ExecuteReader()" Any ideas? If possible a little explanation on how multiple connections to the same database work would be nice just for future reference. Thanks in advance!!, Chris
I need to create a linked server that can access more than one database. I assume, the only wat this can be done by creating two separate links from the local server using Microsoft OLE DB Provider for SQL server. But the problem is the Server Name. I cannot use the same servername twice and if I use a name that is not an exisiting SQL server name I get an error that "server not found".
So, how do I addlink the same server a mulitple times to access different databases in the server?
First off, I'm new to SQL Server and apologize if this is a trivial question.
What I'm trying to do is alias the same table with 2 different names so that I may join them on two different fields.
Table1 Emp_Number Emp_Code_1 Emp_Code_2
Table2 (Contains a list of codes and their related descriptions) Emp_Code Long_Desc Short_Desc
I'm trying to query Table1 for the Emp_Number but I want to get the Short_Desc from Table2 for both Emp_Code1 and Emp_Code2. I'm using Microsoft Access as the front end (using Pass Through Queries) and SQL Server on the back end.
I have a complex query which has to do a few calculations. I'm using subqueries to do the calcs, but most of the calcs have to use a value gotten from the first subquery. I don't want to have to type the subquery out each time, so is there a way of assigning it to a variable or putting it in a UDF or SP?
E.g. I have a table with 2 cols - amount, date.
SELECT total_amount, closing_amount, FROM table1 GROUP BY month(date)
Total amount is the SUM(amount) for the month. Closing amount is the Total Amount plus the amounts for the current month with a few extra calcs.
As I have to use SUM(amount) in the second subquery, is there a way I can do it without having to type hte subquery out again?
This is only a basic example, what I'm trying to do will invovle a lot more calcultions.
Hi. Periodically I need to run a delete statement that deletes old data. The problem is that this can timeout using ODBC (via the CDatabase and CRecordSet classes in legacy code). Also, while its running the delete, the table its operating on is locked and my application can't continue to run and operate on rows not affected by the delete.
Are there any workarounds for this? Can the timeout be set in the connect string?
I’m binding the distinct values from each of 9 columns to 9 drop-down-lists using a stored procedure. The SP accepts two parameters, one of which is the column name. I’m using the code below, which is opening and closing the database connection 9 times. Is there a more efficient way of doing this? newSqlCommand = New SqlCommand("getDistinctValues", newConn)newSqlCommand.CommandType = CommandType.StoredProcedure Dim ownrParam As New SqlParameter("@owner_id", SqlDbType.Int)Dim colParam As New SqlParameter("@column_name", SqlDbType.VarChar)newSqlCommand.Parameters.Add(ownrParam)newSqlCommand.Parameters.Add(colParam) ownrParam.Value = OwnerID colParam.Value = "Make"newConn.Open()ddlMake.DataSource = newSqlCommand.ExecuteReader()ddlMake.DataTextField = "distinct_result"ddlMake.DataBind()newConn.Close() colParam.Value = "Model"newConn.Open()ddlModel.DataSource = newSqlCommand.ExecuteReader()ddlModel.DataTextField = "distinct_result"ddlModel.DataBind()newConn.Close() and so on for 9 columns…
Lets say I have a User Defined Function. I need to call the UDF a number of times within the same View. However, the results are not as expected. The only way (I know of) is to have seperate instances on the same function saved under different names. Is there a way to call a single UDF multiple times within a View without the returned values being messed-up?
I have basic SQL query that returns a one column result set. For each row returned in this result set, I need to pass the value in the column to a stored procedure and get back a result set.
I have 2 solutions, neither of which are very elegant. I'm hoping someone can point me in a better direction.
Solution 1: Use a cursor. The cons here, are the SP returns a result set on each pass which generates multiple result sets overall. If there is a way to combine these result sets, I think this solution might work.
Solution 2: Use a temp table or table variable. The cons here are, if the schema of the result set returned from the stored procedure changes, the table variable will have to change to accommodate it. This is a dependency I'd rather not create.
I am importing xml multiple times a day from a vendor. However when SSIS created the ID's for nested XML data it is not unique. So importing the first time and I get 3-4 records it looks fine. However subsequent imports all use the same ID's so it isn't unique, how do I go about changing this as I cant find anything about it.
we have a table in database , which has multiple triggers defined by Vendor. I have created our own custom trigger on this table also , which fires last. Goal of this custom trigger is to send an email, when ever update happens on table. But somehow trigger is firing multiple times for same update, so it is sending multiple email for same update also