Using Updatable Views When Moving Tables From One DB To Another?
Dec 3, 2007
Hello,
We are researching whether the following scenario would be possible:
In an upcoming application release, we have to move some tables (Log
tables, look up tables, and a couple of secure tables) from database A
to database B.
Rather than wait and do everything all at once, and have no roll-back
plan should it fail, we'd like to create database B now, and start
moving those tables one by one over to it.
To ensure compatibility with the existing code-base, we'd like to
determine whether we can use updatable views to allow the current code
to continue to run against the existing DB.
Essentially, we would do this:
Given a table named LogTable In database A, we'd copy all of
LogTable's data to database B. (We'd look at the transaction log to
copy any changes made on rows modified after copying started.)
Then, we'd turn off the site for a few moments, and:
In database A, we'd rename LogTable to LogTable-Old, and create a view
called LogTable which points to DatabaseB.dbo.LogTable.
When we turn the site back on, updates and selects to LogTable would
physically pull from database B from now on.
I have already verified that performing selects and updates against a
view that refers to another physical database actually does work in
SQL 2K5.
My question is are there any pitfalls or things we should be aware of
that anyone else has experienced trying to do something like this?
Does it sound feasible?
Has anyone seen this error? It comes up when my app executes a select statement via linked server (from MSSQL 2000 to 2005) the second time it runs. It's basically a timed poll of tables in the remote database. It works once but the second time it executes I get the error from the remote db, it's just a select but I guess the cursor is still open so it can't run again. After the exception the select will run again, once and it just repeats. I have researched it a little and it looks like it mostly has to do with the isolation level of the transaction. Unfortunately based on the componet being used to access the database I don't beleive I have the ability to use transact SQL to call the isolation level (s) listed.
Here's the weird part though, at another site the same scenario is running fine. Same primary and remote db versions of MSSQL as well as the application and it runs fine. I guess my question is what type of setup parameters that may be defined in MSSQL 2005 for the remote database might make it behave in this manner in one instance and not the other? TIA in advance for any thoughts/assistance.
I have a fairly complicated data import that needs to be done, but the table structures of the two databases don't match up too neatly. I thought I'd be clever, and create a view in the target database, and import into that view -- only to find out (after reading the manual) that multi-table views are not updatable and cannot be used with BULK INSERT or bcp.
I'm not a database pro, I'm a programmer thrust into this role. Needless to say, I'm a bit of a newbie on these things!
The reason there is a "People" table is because several (SEVERAL) tables in this database contain records for people, and we felt that this was a better design because of it.
The data we're trying to import contains records for billing contacts, which are the People.* fields referenced. It's extremely important that we get this data in the system.
Since BULK INSERT is out, are there any workarounds? There's got to be some kind of non-manual solution, since I know other people have to do imports that start as one table and end up in two ...
For this particular set, I could do it manually -- only two records are affected. BUT, for future sets, I can't do it manually -- literally thousands of records will be affected, and I just don't have the time (or inclination) to do the entry ... Plus, think of the potential error rate!
Hi, In the SQL92 Specifications i read the foloowingf statement... "All base tables are updatable. Derived tables are either updatable or read-only. The operations of insert, update, and delete are permitted for updatable tables, subject to constraining Access Rules. The operations of insert, update, and delete are not allowed for read-only tables." But i am concentrating on the below line from the above written lines, "Derived tables are either updatable or read-only." I want to ask that is derived tables are updatable or not??? if yes then how,???i tried the following querry but its not working...
Searching the KB i only found links to SP1 and SP3, the server is already at SP3.
BOL says the following:
SQL Server 6.x :
Updatable views were restricted to modifications that affected only one table
SQL Server 2000:
Updatable views can modify more than one table involved in the view. The DELETE, INSERT, and UPDATE statements can reference a view as long as SQL Server can translate the user's update request unambiguously to updates in the base tables referenced in the view's definition.
So why can this view not be updated in SS2000 SP3 ?
FROM PS_PER_ORG_ASGN A ,PS_PER_ORG_INST C , PS_JOB D
WHERE A.EMPLID = C.EMPLID AND A.ORG_INSTANCE_ERN = C.ORG_INSTANCE_ERN AND A.EMPLID = D.EMPLID AND A.EMPL_RCD = D.EMPL_RCD AND D.EFFDT = ( SELECT MAX(EFFDT) FROM PS_JOB JOB2 WHERE D.EMPLID = JOB2.EMPLID AND D.EMPL_RCD = JOB2.EMPL_RCD AND (( JOB2.EFFDT <= { FN CURDATE() }) OR (JOB2.EFFDT > { FN CURDATE() } AND { FN CURDATE() } < ( SELECT MIN(J2.EFFDT) FROM PS_JOB J2 WHERE J2.EMPLID = D.EMPLID AND J2.EMPL_RCD = D.EMPL_RCD) ) )) AND D.EFFSEQ = ( SELECT MAX(EFFSEQ) FROM PS_JOB JOB3 WHERE JOB3.EMPLID = D.EMPLID AND JOB3.EMPL_RCD = D.EMPL_RCD AND JOB3.EFFDT = D.EFFDT )
I have read that I need to add an instead of trigger. I have no idea how to do this. I am basicaly trying to update at the moment but will also need to insert later. From the code in VWD2008 I only get the error when i include this info here: When i press update and these below are included in the update statement then i get the error. [S_DATE] = @S_DATE, [END[IS_CONFIRMED] = @IS_CONFIRMED, [IS_PAID] = @IS_PAID, [S_Descript] = @S_DESCRIPT[COMPANY] = @COMPANY[MONTH] = @MONTH[ACCOUNT] = @ACCOUNT
Here is view from SQL 2000. CREATE VIEW dbo.VIEW_TRAINING AS SELECT dbo.ADDRESS.EMAIL, dbo.ADDRESS.FIRST_NAME AS [first name], dbo.ADDRESS.LAST_NAME AS [last name], dbo.ADDRESS.STATE, dbo.ADDRESS.TEL1 AS phone, dbo.CUST.NAME AS Company, dbo.ITEMS.DESCRIPT AS S_Descript, dbo.ADDRESS.JOB_TITLE AS Job_Title, dbo.TRAINING_SCHEDULE.[MONTH], dbo.TRAINING_SCHEDULE.S_DATE, dbo.TRAINING_SCHEDULE.END_DATE, dbo.TRAINING_SCHEDULE.IS_CONFIRMED, dbo.TRAINING_SCHEDULE.IS_PAID, dbo.TRAINING_SCHEDULE.CUST_CODE AS Account, dbo.TRAINING_SCHEDULE.SCHEDULE_ID
FROM dbo.TRAINING_SCHEDULE INNER JOIN dbo.CUST ON dbo.TRAINING_SCHEDULE.CUST_CODE = dbo.CUST.CUST_CODE RIGHT OUTER JOIN dbo.X_INVOIC RIGHT OUTER JOIN dbo.INVOICES ON dbo.X_INVOIC.ORDER_NO = dbo.INVOICES.DOC_NO LEFT OUTER JOIN dbo.ADDRESS ON dbo.INVOICES.CUST_CODE = dbo.ADDRESS.CUST_CODE LEFT OUTER JOIN dbo.ITEMS ON dbo.ITEMS.ITEMNO = dbo.X_INVOIC.ITEM_CODE ON dbo.CUST.CUST_CODE = dbo.ADDRESS.CUST_CODE
WHERE (dbo.X_INVOIC.ITEM_CODE LIKE 'FOT-%') AND (dbo.X_INVOIC.STATUS = 7) AND (dbo.ADDRESS.TYPE IN (4, 5, 6)) AND (dbo.ADDRESS.EMAIL <> '') AND (dbo.ADDRESS.COUNTRY = 'UNITED STATES') AND (dbo.ITEMS.CATEGORY = 'TRAININGCLASSES') AND (dbo.TRAINING_SCHEDULE.CUST_CODE = 'steve')
Here is the forms code I am working with: used VWD to generate the forms...I added update...<%@ Page Language="C#" AutoEventWireup="true" CodeFile="training.aspx.cs" Inherits="training" TRACE = TRUE%>
<!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd">
We are planning to upgrade. We are using Sql 2008R2 now. Which is the better option migrating to SQL 2012 or migrating to 2014?I am thinking 2014 has memory optimized tables and updatable column stored index. So it is better option.
I have a few views i created in a database.I want them to be moved to another database with credentials like dbo.dsatabasename.tablename automatically adding up to the new views. How can i do that
View or function 'MutualFund' is not updatable because the modification affects multiple base tables.
I get the above error when i try to delete rows from a view. i tried the following code with a table. it works perfectly. i want the same behaviour for a view. can anyone help.
Delete MutualFund from MutualFund inner join MutualFund_history on MutualFund.SecurityID= MutualFund_history.SecurityIDwhere MutualFund.MorningstarCategoryID=MutualFund_history.MorningstarCategoryID and MutualFund.MorningstarAssetClassID= MutualFund_history.MorningstarAssetClassID and MutualFund_history.insertdt =(Select MAX(DsegLastUpdated) from Timestamp_History(nolock))
"MutualFund" is a view. if it were a table, the above works well. but how can i simulate the same effect for a view. any help will be greatly appreciated.
I am an SQL beginner / intermediate. My question is assuming everything is equal is a view of a 4 table join slower than the SQL query of the 4 table join when running reports?
My client has a three tier system. and they are using only views to assess the database and doing about 5 joints what are the advantages and disavantages of using only view vs hiting the table dirrectly
Are views used for securiry reasons, such as restricting access to certain columns/rows or is there performance advantages to using views. There is disagreement in my dept.
I created the following view PAYACTIVE:
Select * FROM PAYMENTS WHERE STATUS = 'ACTIVE'
The PAYACTIVE view contains 260 rows. The PAYMENTS table contains over 2 million rows. I executed the following commands:
Select * FROM PAYACTIVE
Select * FROM PAYMENTS WHERE STATUS = 'ACTIVE'
They seem to take the exact same amount of time. In other words, selecting from the view seemed to not help performance. Am I conducting a valid test?
My client has a three tier system. and they are using only views to assess the database and doing about 5 joints what are the advantages and disavantages of using only view vs hiting the table dirrectly>
I have a SQL script that I attempted to write into a view. If I run the script in SQL Query Analyzer it works perfectly. When I attempt to run execute as a view I receive the following error message: "[MS][ODBC SQL Server Driver][SQL Server] The query and the views or function in it exceeded the limit of 256 tables."
My objective is to use the recordset from the view to create a crystal report but have been unable to replicate the "query" effect directly in crystal. (unfortunately I am also a new crystal user)
All my searches have been fruitless. I remember seeing something about SQL Server 2000 supporting 1000 tables and older versions supporting 256 in an Access forum but have not been able to find that thread a second time.
Any provided solution would be greatly appreciated. (I am getting tired of hearing the "gears" in my head grinding. Is smoke from the ears normal?)
SELECT SubID, SubMenuDesc, ItemID, ItemDesc, 0 AS ModID, 'n/a' AS ModDesc, round(ItemPrice/100,2) as ItemPrice FROM vwSubMenuNorm WHERE (ItemPrice <> 0)
UNION SELECT vwSubMenuNorm.SubID, vwSubMenuNorm.SubMenuDesc, vwSubMenuNorm.ItemID, vwSubMenuNorm.ItemDesc, vwModifiersNorm.ItemID AS ModID, vwModifiersNorm.ItemDesc AS ModDesc, round(vwModifiersNorm.ItemPrice/100,2) as ItemPrice FROM vwSubMenuNorm INNER JOIN vwItemNorm ON vwSubMenuNorm.ItemID = vwItemNorm.ID INNER JOIN vwModifiersNorm ON vwItemNorm.MOD1 = vwModifiersNorm.ModID WHERE (vwSubMenuNorm.ItemPrice = 0) AND (vwModifiersNorm.ItemPrice <> 0)
UNION SELECT vwSubMenuNorm.SubID, vwSubMenuNorm.SubMenuDesc, vwSubMenuNorm.ItemID, vwSubMenuNorm.ItemDesc, vwModifiersNorm.ItemID AS ModID, vwModifiersNorm.ItemDesc AS ModDesc, ROUND((vwSubMenuNorm.ItemPrice + vwModifiersNorm.ItemPrice)/100, 2) AS ItemPrice FROM vwSubMenuNorm INNER JOIN vwItemNorm ON vwSubMenuNorm.ItemID = vwItemNorm.ID INNER JOIN vwModifiersNorm ON vwItemNorm.MOD1 = vwModifiersNorm.ModID WHERE (vwSubMenuNorm.ItemPrice <> 0) AND (vwModifiersNorm.ItemPrice <> 0)
Hi,ms-sqlserver 2000 sp4 - entrerprise editionCan you help me on this issue. I would like to move some usertables(about 100 MB) to new file group. Can you tell me what I need todo?Thanks in advance
I am using a Microsoft Access ADP to get to data on SQL Server 2000. I would like to protect the base tables from being edited directly, but allow the views and SPs to handle all the work of getting data in and out. From what I have read in numerous articles and boods, I should be able to grant permissions just on the Views and NOT on the tables. However, the ONLY way I can make my views 'updatable' is by graniting UPDATE permissions on the TABLE! Worse yet, if I DENY permissions to UPDATE, INSERT, and DELETE in the view, but allow them in the table, the view allows the updates anyway, apparently not looking at the fact that it should be DENIED. :confused:
We are attempting to implement security on top of a shrink-wrapped softwarepackage and are trying to get row-level security. Here's the scenario:1. Table dbo.BOOK contains all the information about books in everydepartment.2. There are a large number of developed reports that run queries like"select * from BOOK..."3. We wish to have each Department only be able to see their books - withoutchanging the existing reports.Our thought was to create a series of views:create view Dept1.BOOK asselect * from BOOK where Dept=1....and then create Roles for each Dept. We'd then remove rights to dbo.BOOKand grant rights to DeptN.BOOK as appropriate for each role. We startedtesting this and seemed to get it working, but are now having problems. Isthis possible? Is there another, better solution?Thanks!
I have an applicaton in which I collect data for different parametersfor a set of devices. The data are entered into a single table, eachset of name, value pairs time-stamped and associated with a device.The definition of the table is as follows:CREATE TABLE devicedata(device_idintNOT NULL REFERENCES devices(id),-- id in the devicetabledatetimedatetimePRIMARY KEY CLUSTERED,-- date creatednamenvarchar(256)NOT NULL,-- name of the attributevaluesql_variantNOT NULL-- value)For example, I have 3 devices, and each is monitored for two attributes-- temperature and pressure. Data for these are gathered at say every20 minute and every 15 minute intervals.The table is filled with records over a period of time, and I canperform a variety of SQL queries.I have another requirement which requires me to retrieve the *latest*values of temperature and pressure for each device.Ideally, I'd like to use the data I have collected to get thisinformation, and I suppose I can.What I need is the SELECT statement to do this.I'd appreciate it very much, if someone can help provide that.Conceivably, I could use a SQL server View for making this easier forsome of my users.One alternate technique I thought was to create another table which I*update* with the latest value, each time I *insert* into the abovetable. But it seems like a waste to do so, and introduces needlessreferential integrity issues (minor). Maybe for fast access, that isthe best thing to do.I have requirements to maintain this data for several months/year ortwo, so I am dealing with a large number of samples.Any help would be appreciated.(I apologize if this post appears twice)
I've got a table T1 and a view V1 based on T1's rows (but not all rows).
I've granted users to do update and select on my View V1. But i don't want users directly update my table T1.
then, i log as a standard user in Enterprise mgr, and open my view V1. I modify a value in a field, and when i validate, an error occurs saying i'm not allowed to make Select neither Update on table T1.
I am looking for an efficient mechanism to compare data between 2 tables/views.
Rationale: I use a proprietary tool to data transfer between 2 databases. The tool itself uses Microsoft SSIS (integration service) to transfer data. I want to make sure that the data is transfered properly. Both the source and target database are not live database. The source and target database are in seperate servers.
