Sending SQL 2005 Dbmail When Using Application Role
Jan 16, 2007
I am attempting to use dbmail from an application that logs in to my database using an application role. Since the application role does not exist outside the database, I created an spSendEmail in the database with "execute as login='mailagent'" in it: I set the database to trustworthy, created a 'mailagent' account and added it to the msdb database with the databasemailuser role rights.
Email works just fine on the server when I use the execute as login='mailagent' to fire off the msdb..sp_send_dbmail. But from the .NET application, I get the error: "Cannot execute as the server principal because the principal 'mailagent' does not exist, this type of principal cannot be impersonated, or you do not have permission." When I run my spSendEmail stored procedure from the calling database, I get the same error.
Ive been reading over the documentation and some stuff online, but I still dont really understand what the difference is and when you would use one vs the other. Can someone put it in simple terms for this dummy (me) ?
Can I confirm whether pooling=false in the connection string is still required for SQL Server 2005 (Express Edition)?
Various google searches say pooling has to be turned off for SQL Server 2000, but I was just wondering whether it is still a limitation for SQL Server 2005
I have developed a VB6 program which will activate an Application Role to UPDATE and INSERT some tables in SQL Server 2005.
My program will login with a username, say USER and then run with the rights of the Application Role which will SELECT, UPDATE and INSERT the following tables: 1) Table A 2) Table B 3) Table C
The USER login is a restricted user which has only SELECT permission to Table A, B and C.
I encounter a problem in which my program can only UPDATE table B and table C but Table A. I have double checked the settings of Table A, Table B and Table C. Theirs are all same. Fyi, the column which can't be updated is of type "datetime".
Once i grant USER login UPDATE permission to Table A, my program works perfectly in which it can UPDATE all the tables including Table A.
I have tried for almost 2 days but am still clueless. Any ideas?
I'm developing a web application and i like to use the sql server 2005 role management features istead of developing a role management package in my program, I can do it on my tables and othe database items but I have no idea about using database access rights in my web pages to permit some one viewing or updating a web form... Is there any system table or system stored procedure showing access rights in my data base? or is there another idea to do this??
I am very frustrated. Everything works on the local host but when I upload to server I can login to the admin role I created, but when I try to access pages that have role priveleges I get the following error: The SSE Provider did not find the database file specified in the connection string. At the configured trust level (below High trust level), the SSE provider can not automatically create the database file. The ASPNETDB.MDF database was uploaded using the Database Publishing Wizard. Please help!
Hi all, I am trying to connect to the database using application role. But gives an error An error has occurred while establishing a connection to the server. When connecting to SQL Server 2005, this failure may be caused by the fact that under the default settings SQL Server does not allow remote connections. (provider: SQL Network Interfaces, error: 26 - Error Locating Server/Instance Specified) for the given connection string Dim connstring As String = "Data Source=Northwind;Initial Catalog=OrderProcessing;Persist Security Info=True;UserID=application_login;Password=wewewe;"
I have a stored proc that inserts records into a table, gets the identity, and uses that identity on a .net webpage. The page retrieves that identity key and processes some stuff on the page.
Everything was working fine until I tried to enable sql mail with triggers. I wanted to double-check some stuff, so I requested an sql email be sent whenever an insert occurs on the table above. Here's what I think is happening --- please correct and/or help me out with a work around?
I use the stored proc to insert a record. I select the @@identity. The trigger fires but uses select to retrieve the latest insert - thereby replacing the @@identity number returned to the page?
If this is true, could I do something like the following in the original stored proc? Is this a good idea or bad idea?
BEGIN Declare @myID as int, @myBody1 as varChar(200) Set @myID=0 INSERT INTO table (fields) VALUES (@PID, more stuff); Set @myID = SELECT @@IDENTITY As [Identity]; If @myID<>0 Begin Set @body1='<br />pid=' + more stuff..... Exec msdb.dbo.sp_send_dbmail @profile_name='profileName', @recipients='email@email.com', @subject='Temp History Insert', @body=@body1, @body_format= 'HTML' ; End END
This one is a real X FIle, just without Mulder, Scully or the Lone Gunmen!
I have a database, to which access must be restricted via a sole application. So, I have to use an application role. I go in the database and run these statements to add and activate the roles, respectively;
Exec sp_addapprole 'Sirius', 'password'
(The system confirms the role is created.)
Exec sp_setapprole 'Sirius', 'password' 'odbc'
(The system confirms the role is activated.)
Right, now I should not be able to connect using anything but this role, agreed? But here's where things go wrong. I can then successfully connect from another computer by using MS query from Excel, from a login that is not even a member of the Public Role!
I tried again, started and stopped the Server/DTS/Agent services and dropped the old role after each successful login before recreating it. I've checked my syntax exhaustively. I must be doing something wrong, or overlooking something, otherwise MS has a major security problem! (Just hope the Cancer Man doesn't find out!!)
I understand that this procedure connects to my sqlserver database as my application role
Ok, so far no problems in reading and manipulating data.
The problem comes with the reports in my application. For example: I have a reportviewer with a serverreport but when I try to show the report gives an error about permissions and grant access....
I think that is because the Server Report uses the user account (domain/user) to read the database. No user (besides admin) has access permissions in the database (only admin and application role).
So, my cuestion is: How can I tell Report Server to use the application role to display reports?
We have an application use Approle to read from database. If the client login to windows as administrator or a name that has the administrator rights, the application can get all data. If the client login to windows as a domain user that has limited rights, the application can't get all data. I run profiler and found that it seems, when application use approle to access a database, the login name is the domain user that log into windows. Is there anybody know what type of right the window login name should have in order to get all data from a database?
Second question, when I log in to window as domainusername( username is not administrator, but has administrator rights). In the profiler, I can see the application use this domainusername access database. However, under sql server login node, I didn't find domainusername. Is this because, the domainusername belongs to buildinadministrator?
I know how to create an Application role in SQL server 7. Now how do I connect to the database from VB using that Application Role? I can't find anything about this topic anywhere. Is this the purpose of an Application role or am I way off?
I'm testing the use of application roles for security. The customer I work for has still a lot of ASP intranet applications running. We're migrating the databases to a SQL Server 2005 server.
I've changed the connection string to a user without any permissions but to log on. After that I use an application role for permission to select different tables and to execute Stored Procedures.
The first queries do execute but after that I get "Permission denied", like I haven't got the application role anymore.
I want to add bulkadmin permission to my applicatio role. Is it aposible.My windows account havo only public permission on database.I'm using application roleEXEC sp_approlepassword 'MyRole', 'password';Therefore I want to BULK some data with BULK INSERT command.Error is:The current user is not the database or object owner of table'tablename'. Cannot perform SET operation.Thanks in advance.
In SQL Server 2005, you must have the VIEW SERVER STATE permission in order to access sys.syslockinfo (http://msdn2.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms189497).
The role I have added to the database is an Application Role. It has been added to the Database permissions with Grant checked for "Select" and "Authenticate".
If I test this with query analyzer, it returns expected results (if I remove Grant from 'Select', it fails)
sp_setapprole 'SearchAppRole', 'password'
select * from recipe
If I edit my connection string (for testing purposes) to use the sa account, the application can connect and run the Select statement:
However, I cannot get the application to successfully logon and run the select statement when using the user id and password of the Application Role. I get error:
System.Data.SqlClient.SqlException: Login failed for user 'SearchAppRole'. at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlInternalConnection.OnError(SqlException exception, Boolean breakConnection) at System.Data.SqlClient.TdsParser.ThrowExceptionAndWarning(TdsParserStateObject stateObj
I can't find much information on Application Role...I just want one basic permission for the application as a whole. Any help is appreciated. Thanks.
Running VB 2005 Express Edition and Sql Server 2005 Express Edition (SQLX).
Developing a desktop application which calls a local instance of ".sqlexpress".
This app needs to set data base options and add/del various table columns.
When activating the application role, I get the following message:
HariCari SQL Error/s 15422 - Application roles can only be activated at the ad hoc level.
Anyone know what this message means?
I have searched SQL Server Books On-Line and been unable to find a list of Sql err numbers. Either I have missed the obvious or Books On-Line has missed the obvious.
Hi everybody. I created an application role in a database (DB1) and gave it all the rights on a view in DB1 which refers to a table located in another db (DB2). I also gave the rights to the app role on a table of DB1 I tried to use this app. role through the sp_setapprole launched by a user (server principal?) which is SQL Server administrator (and local administrator (Win 2003 Server)). With the following query SELECT USER_NAME()
I see that the approle is being used. Than, if I query the table on DB1 everything works, but if I query the view, referring a table in db2 I get following error:
The server principal "NameOfServerPrincipal" is not able to access the database "DB2" under the current security context. What should I do to make it work?
The table in DB2 has the same schema of the view in DB1 which refers to it. I put the DB1 TrustWorthy and both the database have the db_chaining option activated.
Any idea on how to solve the problem would be widely appreciated. Thank you very much. Vania
In sql server 2000, I created some custom database roles called ProjectLeader and Developer. I would make these roles a member in the fixed database roles so that I would only have to add the user to the ProjectLeader or Developer role once and they would presto-magico have the security I wanted them to have with no unecessary mouse clicking. I'm not sure how to repeat this process in 2005? Management Studio doesn't seem to allow you to add a role as a member in another role. Is there a work around or solution for this?
Background: I am a post-graduate student developing a model of the way HIV/AIDS spreads in communities. The data sets I am using are large (eg census data - 50m records) and the manipulation is complex (eg deciding which individuals will begin a sexual partnership, and with whom).
Problem: I need to process a table of data in code written in C# that will insert the results which are also a table of data into a table in the database.
In the example set up below, a table with rows comprising an Integer and a Real is the input. The output is a table where each row also comprises an Integer and a Real. Each row of input, say (Inti, Reali) leads to Inti rows of output. The example below gives a simple example of this.
The T-SQL code below sets up the problem, and includes simplest possible T-SQL that would lead to the requisite Output, so that you could compare your solution's code's with it:
-- Set up tables to use in example
CREATE TABLE InputTable
(
Int1 INT NOT NULL,
Real1 REAL NOT NULL
)
GO
CREATE TABLE OutputTable
(
Int1 INT NOT NULL,
Real1 REAL NOT NULL
)
GO
--Initialise the Input Table
INSERT INTO InputTable (Int1, Real1) VALUES (3, 0.5)
INSERT INTO InputTable (Int1, Real1) VALUES (5, 0.99)
--Manually put Data into Output table
--I do know how to code this in T-SQL using cursors and loops
--I wish to code this part in CLR
INSERT INTO OutputTable (Int1, Real1) VALUES (1, 0.5)
INSERT INTO OutputTable (Int1, Real1) VALUES (2, 0.5)
INSERT INTO OutputTable (Int1, Real1) VALUES (3, 0.5)
INSERT INTO OutputTable (Int1, Real1) VALUES (1, 0.99)
INSERT INTO OutputTable (Int1, Real1) VALUES (2, 0.99)
INSERT INTO OutputTable (Int1, Real1) VALUES (3, 0.99)
INSERT INTO OutputTable (Int1, Real1) VALUES (4, 0.99)
INSERT INTO OutputTable (Int1, Real1) VALUES (5, 0.99)
--This should show the output
SELECT * FROM InputTable
SELECT * FROM OutputTable
--The output should be
Int1Real1
3 0.5
5 0.99
Int1Real1
1 0.5
2 0.5
3 0.5
1 0.99
2 0.99
3 0.99
4 0.99
5 0.99
Additional Information: I would be grateful if your solution could indicate
* whether the code to be written is a class, stored procedure or user-defined function
* the answer could be included in entirity begining with "using system..."
* example T-SQL that can be used to execute the code
Current knowledge:I can write T-Sql. I have written C# user defined functions and stored procedures, assembled them and run them from within SQL-Server 2005.
Hi, I have a need to shoot and automated mail at regular intervals to clients. I got the following code for sending email from SQL Server but get an error.
ALTER PROCEDURE [dbo].[sp_SMTPMail]
@SenderName varchar(100),
@SenderAddress varchar(100),
@RecipientName varchar(100),
@RecipientAddress varchar(100),
@Subject varchar(200),
@Body varchar(8000),
@MailServer varchar(100) = 'localhost'
AS
SET nocount on
declare @oMail int --Object reference
declare @resultcode int
EXEC @resultcode = sp_OACreate 'SMTPsvg.Mailer', @oMail OUT
SQL Server blocked access to procedure 'sys.sp_OACreate' of component 'Ole Automation Procedures' because this component is turned off as part of the security configuration for this server. A system administrator can enable the use of 'Ole Automation Procedures' by using sp_configure. For more information about enabling 'Ole Automation Procedures', see "Surface Area Configuration" in SQL Server Books Online.
We have the need to be able to send emails from our SQL 2005 server with the from address field determined at run time from a table. What are my options? We are running a clustered SQL 2005 x64 standard edition on Win 2003 Enterprise x64.
1. Database Mail - with all the hoopla about how nice it is to have a proper SMTP mailer in SQL, it still seems to lack this functionailty. IMHO a HUGE miss. 2. sp_send_cdosysmail - We used this when we had a SQL 2000 on W2K and it worked just fine. On our current environment, the stored procedure works for a period of time and then suddenly and out of no where we see this message in its log files:
CDO.Configuration.1 - A dynamic link library (DLL) initialization routine failed. sp_OAGetErrorInfo for sp_OASetPropery sendusing
After which no emails are sent until I restart the SQL Server service. We have tried both the sendusing method of 1 (local pickup) as well as 2 (remote SMTP server) and both are exhibiting the same behavior.
I am trying to send a file from SQL 2005 back to our AS400 DB2 db. First time trying to get this to work in SSIS.
I have a couple fields that are datetime in SQL Server and see SQL server sees datetime fields from DB2 as string so I am converting them to Strings using derived columns. That part seems to work fine. Get no errors on that part.
The conversions seem like they are working but it is faling when it tries to send it to as/400. I get the following error: any ideas on what is wrong?
[OLE DB Destination [1569]] Error: SSIS Error Code DTS_E_OLEDBERROR. An OLE DB error has occurred. Error code: 0x80004005. An OLE DB record is available. Source: "IBMDA400 File Rowset" Hresult: 0x80004005 Description: "CPF5029: Data mapping error on member DSSCNTL. ". An OLE DB record is available. Source: "IBMDA400 File Rowset" Hresult: 0x80004005 Description: "CPF5035: Data mapping error on member DSSCNTL. ". An OLE DB record is available. Source: "IBMDA400 File Rowset" Hresult: 0x80004005 Description: "CPF5035: Data mapping error on member DSSCNTL. ".
I even created a sql table with same field sizes as one I am sending to AS400 and its sucessful there. So seem like it mght have somthing to do with sending to AS400 but not sure what.
Hai, I am working on the DTS Package in SQL Server 2005 , actaully the DTA Packages Use OutLook to Send the email to the Mailing List , now that Out Look Stuff is not working Fine , soo I came to know that we can use Sp_send_dbMail stored Procedure insteds of Outlook , i am trying to do that my Email contains the attaachment to the Text file from the shared Folder. I am not Getting the Correct Help when i am trying . So can some one Helpe Providind Some examples and suggetions .
Hello, I've been banging my head trying to figure this one out so I appreciate any help you guys can provide.
I've setup and configured SQL 2005's Database mail and have sent a few plain and simple text emails and I receive it fine at the destination.
I now want to send mime messages but I'm not sure what I'm doing wrong. I took the following source from an email that linked-in sent me which was a mime message: "
Mime-Version: 1.0
Content-Type: multipart/alternative;
boundary='----=_Part_434343432'
------=_Part_434343432
Content-Type: text/plain; charset=UTF-8
Content-Transfer-Encoding: 7bit
Plain Text Goes Here
------=_Part_434343432
Content-Type: text/html; charset=UTF-8
Content-Transfer-Encoding: 7bit
<html>
<body>
<b>HTML Goes here</b>
</body>
</html>
------=_Part_434343432--
" and put the above text in the @body parameter of the stored proc msdb.dbo.sp_send_dbmail and submitted it.
When I received the email, it didn't appear as html. Instead, I just got the mime message above as plain text in my email as if someone just typed it and sent it to me. What do I need to do for SQL Database Mail to send the above as a MIME message?
Is it possible to embed a image datatype into a EMail message using sp_Send_DBMail?
For example, my query would select a saved print screen image held in a SQL table as datatype image. I would prefer not to attach this image but rather have it print in the message section.
