I'm getting syntax errors that just aren't helping me at all, so I thought maybe what I'm trying to do can't be done. I'm creating a UDF with 4 parameters, and I want it to return a result set (i.e. a table). But I want a different result set depending upon the value of one of the parameters. This works totally fine as a SP, but I can't tell where to put the RETURN clause(s) on the UDF.
I've got:
CREATE FUNCTION myFunction(@param1,...,@param4)
RETURNS TABLE
AS
BEGIN
IF @param1='x'
BEGIN
RETURN(SELECT columns FROM TableX)
END
ELSE
BEGIN
RETURN(SELECT columns FROM TableY)
END
END
I get an "Incorrect syntax near the keyword 'IF'" error. I also tried using just one RETURN() wrapped around the outside of the IF construction (right after the very first BEGIN and before the last END), but to no avail. I get no errors when I run this logic as an SP. Is this type of construct not allowed in a UDF? Is there an alternative? I can't just leave this as a proc because I'm going to have to call these results from several views. Help!
Here is the scenario, I have 2 stored procedures, SP1 and SP2
SP1 has the following code:
declare @tmp as varchar(300) set @tmp = 'SELECT * FROM OPENROWSET ( ''SQLOLEDB'', ''SERVER=.;Trusted_Connection=yes'', ''SET FMTONLY OFF EXEC ' + db_name() + '..StoredProcedure'' )'
EXEC (@tmp)
SP2 has the following code:
SELECT * FROM SP1 (which won't work because SP1 is a stored procedure. A view, a table valued function, or a temporary table must be used for this)
Views - can't use a view because they don't allow dynamic sql and the db_name() in the OPENROWSET function must be used. Temp Tables - can't use these because it would cause a large hit on system performance due to the frequency SP2 and others like it will be used. Functions - My last resort is to use a table valued function as shown:
FUNCTION MyFunction ( ) RETURNS @retTable ( @Field1 int, @Field2 varchar(50) ) AS BEGIN -- the problem here is that I need to call SP1 and assign it's resulting data into the -- @retTable variable
-- this statement is incorrect, but it's meaning is my goal INSERT @retTableSELECT *FROM SP1
So I was creating a new table-valued function today which queries some data from a preexisting table. Since this is my first table-valued function, I decided to check out some of the examples and see what I can figure out.
One particular example helped me out a bit until I ran into some data access issues... http://msdn2.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms165054.aspx
So I create my function:
[SqlFunction(DataAccess = DataAccessKind.Read,SystemDataAccess=SystemDataAccessKind.Read,FillRowMethodName = "FillMyRow",TableDefinition ="p1 int, p2 int"] public static IEnumerable getMyTable() { using (SqlConnection conn = ....) { using (SqlCommand command = conn.CreateCommand()) { ///.... populate command text, open connection using (SqlDataReader rdr = command.ExecuteReader()) { while (rdr.Read()) { customObject1 o = new customObject1(); ///... populate o's parameters from reader ... yield return o; } } } }
public static void FillMyRow( object source, out int p1, out int p2) { customObject1 f = (customObject1)source; p1 = f.p1; p2 = f.p2; }
Notice, this example yield returns the value o upon each iteration of the reader. Despite the fact that the DataAccess is set to Read I still get the error...
An error occurred while getting new row from user defined Table Valued Function :
System.InvalidOperationException: Data access is not allowed in this context. Either the context is a function or method not marked with DataAccessKind.Read or SystemDataAccessKind.Read, is a callback to obtain data from FillRow method of a Table Valued Function, or is a UDT validation method.
I did however get past this error, by creating a collection of customObject1, populated it within the while(rdr.Read()) loop, then return the collection after closing the connection, command and reader.
I assume this error has something to do with the fact that you can't yield return results from within an open reader. Is this error right though in this case? Whats causing it to throw a InvOp Exception? Or is this a bug?
My overarching goal is to generate sets of random Symptom records for each Enrollee in a drug study, so that for each cycle (period of time), the code will insert a random number of random records for each enrollee.
I'm trying to return a number of random records from a table, but inside a table-valued function... (which could be my problem).
CREATE FUNCTION dbo.ufn_GetTopSymptoms ( @enrollID INT , @CTCVersion VARCHAR(20) , @NumRecords INT ) RETURNS TABLE
[Code] ....
But that ORDER BY NEWID() clause is illegal apparently, because here's the error it throws:
Msg 443, Level 16, State 1, Procedure ufn_GetTopSymptoms, Line 13 Invalid use of a side-effecting operator 'newid' within a function.
I was hoping I could return a set of enrollmentIDs and then use CROSS APPLY to generate a random set of records for each enrollmentID... is this not possible with APPLY? I was trying to avoid using a cursor...
The idea is basically to create all the Symptom records for all the patients in treatment cycle at once by using Enrollee OUTER APPLY dbo.ufn_GetTopSymtoms(dbo.Enrollment.EnrolleeID)
but that's clearly not working. Is there a way to do this without resorting to a cursor?
I have tables and a function as representated by the code below. The names  for objects here are just for representation and not the actual names of objects. Table RDTEST may have one or multiple values for RD for each PID. So the function GIVERD will return one or multiple values of RD for each value of PID passed to it.
When I run the following query, I get the required result except the rows for CID 500 for which PID is NULL in table T1. I want the rows for CID 500 as well with PID values as NULL.
SELECT  A.CID, A.ANI, A.PID, B.RD FROM T1 AS A CROSS APPLY GIVERD(A.PID) B
I have an assembly that contains the following function:
Public Class Lookup
<SqlFunction()> _
Public Shared Function MyTest() As Integer
Return System.Data.SqlTypes.SqlInt64.Null
End Function
End Class
Then in SSMS:
CREATE ASSEMBLY IRS_MyTest
FROM '\machine empmyAssembly.dll'
GO
CREATE FUNCTION dbo.MyTest() RETURNS INT
AS EXTERNAL NAME IRS_MyTest.[MyClass].MyTest
GO
when I run:
SELECT dbo.MyTest()
the following is returned:
Msg 6522, Level 16, State 2, Line 1
A .NET Framework error occurred during execution of user defined routine or aggregate 'MyTest':
System.Data.SqlTypes.SqlNullValueException: Data is Null. This method or property cannot be called on Null values.
System.Data.SqlTypes.SqlNullValueException:
at System.Data.SqlTypes.SqlInt64.get_Value()
at System.Data.SqlTypes.SqlInt64.op_Explicit(SqlInt64 x)
at Informed.DCLG.IRS.SQL.IncidentTransform.Lookup.MyTest()
Can anyone please advise on how to return back a null value. Currently, my only other option is to return nothing (actually returns 0) and then wrap this up to convert the value to null - not ideal.
I'm trying to create a SQL server 2000 function that returns a scalar value, but I keep getting the error "Return statements in scalar valued functions must include an argument". Online clarification of this error message is no help at all.I've tried all sorts of combinations of the following, without much luck. Can someone point out my dim-witted mistake, please?ALTER FUNCTION dbo.intCoursesPublic (@intCatID as int) RETURNS intASBEGIN RETURN SELECT COUNT(intCourseID) AS Expr1 FROM dbo.tbl_guru_course_list WHERE (intCatID = @intCatID)END
Ok, I'm pretty knowledgable about T-SQL, but I've hit something that seems should work, but just doesn't... I'm writing a stored procedure that needs to use the primary key fields of a table that is being passed to me so that I can generate what will most likely be a dynamically generated SQL statement and then execute it. So the first thing I do, is I need to grab the primary key fields of the table. I'd rather not go down to the base system tables since we may (hopefully) upgrade this one SQL 2000 machine to 2005 fairly soon, so I poke around, and find sp_pkeys in the master table. Great. I pass in the table name, and sure enough, it comes back with a record set, 1 row per column. That's exactly what I need. Umm... This is the part where I'm at a loss. The stored procedure outputs the resultset as a resultset (Not as an output param). Now I want to use that list in my stored procedure, thinking that if the base tables change, Microsoft will change the stored procedure accordingly, so even after a version upgrade my stuff SHOULD still work. But... How do I use the resultset from the stored procedure? You can't reference it like a table-valued function, nor can you 'capture' the resultset for use using the syntax like: DECLARE @table table@table=EXEC sp_pkeys MyTable That of course just returns you the RETURN_VALUE instead of the resultset it output. Ugh. Ok, so I finally decide to just bite the bullet, and I grab the code from sp_pkeys and make my own little function called fn_pkeys. Since I might also want to be able to 'force' the primary keys (Maybe the table doesn't really have one, but logically it does), I decide it'll pass back a comma-delimited varchar of columns that make up the primary key. Ok, I test it and it works great. Now, I'm happily going along and building my routine, and realize, hey, I don't really want that in a comma-delimited varchar, I want to use it in one of my queries, and I have this nice little table-valued function I call split, that takes a comma-delimited varchar, and returns a table... So I preceed to try it out... SELECT *FROM Split(fn_pkeys('MyTable'),DEFAULT) Syntax Error. Ugh. Eventually, I even try: SELECT *FROM Split(substring('abc,def',2,6),DEFAULT) Syntax Error. Hmm...What am I doing wrong here, or can't you use a scalar-valued function as a parameter into a table-valued function? SELECT *FROM Split('bc,def',DEFAULT) works just fine. So my questions are: Is there any way to programmatically capture a resultset that is being output from a stored procedure for use in the stored procedure that called it? Is there any way to pass a scalar-valued function as a parameter into a table-valued function? Oh, this works as well as a work around, but I'm more interested in if there is a way without having to workaround: DECLARE @tmp varchar(8000) SET @tmp=(SELECT dbo.fn_pkeys('MyTable')) SELECT * FROM Split(@tmp,DEFAULT)
SELECT table1.col1 ,€™n/a€™ _response FROM table1 INNER JOIN table2
This is the query that get the report data for my report. Now I need to replace the second column with an actual response like €˜accepted€™ and €˜rejected€™. And these values should be a result of evaluation of this form
If(Statusarray.count < 1) Set _response = €˜accepted€™ Else Get Statusarray[1] Compare this to Statusarray[0] Set _response = some result based on comparision.
The _response returned in the query should return the actual response based on this evaluation where ResponseStoredProcedure is sent the current row value for table1.col1.
How can this be done in sql(using SQL Server 2005)
I'm trying to convert the query immediately below into a function with the conditional logic to return a VARCHAR value with the gender: male, female or unknown.
SELECT empid, firstname, lastname, titleofcourtesy, CASE WHEN titleofcourtesy IN('Ms.', 'Mrs.') THEN 'Female' WHEN titleofcourtesy = 'Mr.' THEN 'Male' ELSE 'Unknown' END AS gender FROM HR.Employees; GO
Below is the conditional logic function I'm trying to create to replicate the logic above.
CREATE FUNCTION dbo.Gender ( @male AS VARCHAR(10), @female AS VARCHAR(10), @unknown AS VARCHAR(10) ) RETURNS VARCHAR(10)
Can someone tell me if it is possible to add an index to a Table variable that is declare as part of a table valued function ? I've tried the following but I can't get it to work.
ALTER FUNCTION dbo.fnSearch_GetJobsByOccurrence ( @param1 int, @param2 int ) RETURNS @Result TABLE (resultcol1 int, resultcol2 int) AS BEGIN
Hello, It is possible to write stored procedures which take table names as parameters; is it also possible to do this with table valued functions?
For example, a simple stored procedure is this:
CREATE PROCEDURE SelectTop(@tableName sysname) AS BEGIN
Execute('Select top 10 * from ' + @tableName + ';')
END
I want to be able to do the analogous thing with a table valued function (so that I can query the result set, without having to create a temp table). How should I do this (i.e., pass a tablename as an argument to a table valued function)?
I need to return a table of values calculated from other tables. I have about 10 reports which will use approx. 6 different table structures.
Would it be better performance wise to create a physical table in the database to update while calculating using an identity field to id the stored procedure call, return the data and delete the records. For Example:
I need to return a table of values calculated from other tables. I have about 10 reports which will use approx. 6 different table structures.
Would it be better performance wise to create a physical table in the database to update while calculating using an identity field to id the stored procedure call, return the data and delete the records. For Example:
I have a stored produre. Inside this stored procedure I have table variable with one column. Once the table variable is populated with rows, I would like to pass each value in the table, into a table-valued function. The table-valued function may return any number of rows. I would like all the rows the TVF returns to be returned from the stored procedure as a single result set. I would also like to do this without defining a table variable to hold the results of the table-value function.
Code Snippet
declare @IdTable table ( EmployeeId nvarchar( 16 ) not null ) insert into @IdTable select EmployeeNumber from Employees
/* I need to run this query for every EmployeeId value in @IdTable and return the results from the stored proc as a single result set. */ select * from fn_GetEmployeeById( EmployeeId )
In my stored procedure i have a multi-valued varchar(max) parameter and I wrote a table-valued function that takes the varchar(max) and return a table back to the stored procedure where i inserted into a @table. Just wondering is there a better and faster way of doing this?
ALTER PROCEDURE [dbo].[rpt]
(
@CourtIDs as nvarchar(MAX) -- @CourtIDs = '1231,3432,1234,3421'
) AS
--split CourtIDs into a table DECLARE @tbCourtIDs table(CourtID int NOT NULL PRIMARY KEY) INSERT INTO @tbCourtIDs select * from dbo.Split(@CourtIDs, ',')
I'm studying for the MCDBA test & understand table valued functions but am struggling to find a good use for them... can anyone explain to me why you'd want to use one over a view?
I am new to writing table-valued user defined function, so this might be a 'Duh' question. I am trying to write a table-valued UDF that has to return multiple rows. How do I do this?
Hi I am writting Stored Procedures that have to be built on the base of other tables specially created for this purpose, is it better to create these intermediate tables as views or as functions returning tables? I guess views would be lighter on performance as they would not be created on the fly?
Here's my function. The trouble - I can not make ORDER BY the "visits_count", "properties_count", "enquiries_count" fields. May be some one could help me with this?
CREATE FUNCTION [dbo].[GetPagedStatistics] ( @start_index int, @count int, @condition nvarchar(255), @order_field nvarchar(255), @date_from datetime, @date_to datetime ) RETURNS @total_stat TABLE ( username nvarchar(255), first_name nvarchar(255), last_name nvarchar(255), properties_count int, enquiries_count int, visits_count int, id_user int) BEGIN INSERT @total_stat SELECT top (@count) dbo.users.username, dbo.users.first_name, dbo.users.last_name, ISNULL(COUNT(DISTINCT dbo.advertisement.id_advertisement), 0) AS properties_count, ISNULL(COUNT(DISTINCT dbo.enquiry_emails.id_enquiry_email), 0) AS enquiries_count, ISNULL(COUNT(DISTINCT dbo.property_statistics.id_statistics), 0) AS visits_count, dbo.users.id_user FROM dbo.property_statistics RIGHT OUTER JOIN dbo.advertisement RIGHT OUTER JOIN dbo.users ON dbo.advertisement.id_user = dbo.users.id_user LEFT JOIN dbo.enquiry_emails ON dbo.enquiry_emails.id_advertisement = dbo.advertisement.id_advertisement ON dbo.property_statistics.id_advertisement = dbo.advertisement.id_advertisement WHERE 1=@condition and (dbo.advertisement.creation_date <= @date_to and dbo.advertisement.creation_date >= @date_from ) and ( (dbo.enquiry_emails.creation_date <= @date_to and dbo.enquiry_emails.creation_date >= @date_from and dbo.property_statistics.view_date <= @date_to and dbo.property_statistics.view_date >= @date_from ) or (dbo.property_statistics.view_date is null) or (dbo.enquiry_emails.creation_date is null) ) and (ISNULL(dbo.advertisement.id_parent, 0) = 0)
GROUP BY dbo.users.username, dbo.users.first_name, dbo.users.last_name, dbo.users.id_user
order by case when @order_field='username' then dbo.users.username end, case when @order_field='first_name' then dbo.users.first_name end, case when @order_field='last_name' then dbo.users.last_name end, case when @order_field='properties_count' then 1 end, case when @order_field='enquiries_count' then 1 end, case when @order_field='visits_count' then 1 end
Help! Been doing the box step with BOL for several hours , Using tables in Adventureworks to create inline-table-valued function to provide a parameterized view of three JOINS - Have sucessfully created the function but can't figure out where to 'Declare' my variable "@SalesAgentID" need to be able to invoke the function with a particular ID - If you can help me cut this dance short I would REALLY Appreciate it.
I want to join a table valued function but function parameter should left joined table's primary key .... this is posible in oracle by pipeline method .. eg.. SELECT A.Col1,A.Col2,B.Col1,B.Col2 FROM Tab As A LEFT OUTER JOIN TblFunction(A.Pkey) B ON A.Col1 = B.Col1
Is there a way to create a trigger directly on an inline or multi-line tablevalue function?I am trying to create a quick-and-dirty application using an Access DataProject front-end with SQL 2000 SP3 EE.Thanks.
Hi there. I've hit some gap in my SQL fundementals. I'm playing with table-valued functions but I can't figure out how to join those results with another table. I found another way to hit my immediate need with a scalar function, but ultimately I'm going to need to use some approach like this. What am I misunderstanding here?
The Given Objects: function Split(stringToSplit, delimiter) returns table (column: token) table Words (column: Words.word) -- table of predefined words table Sentences (column: Sentences.sentence) -- table of sentences; tokens may not be in Words table, etc
The Problems: 1) how do I query a set of Sentences and their Tokens? (using Split) 2) how do I join tables Sentences and Words using the Split function?
The Attempts: A) select word, sentence, token from Words, Sentences, dbo.Split(sentence, ' ') -- implicitly joins Split result with Sentences? where word = token
resulting error: "'sentence' is not a recognized OPTIMIZER LOCK HINTS option."
B) select word, sentence from Words, Sentences where word in (select token from dbo.Split(sentence, ' ')) -- correlated subquery?
resulting error: "'sentence' is not a recognized OPTIMIZER LOCK HINTS option."
Is it possible to define a constraint for Primary Key on more than 1 column or an alternate index on a column in a return table from an inline table valed function?
Example Header:
alter FUNCTION [dbo].[fntMetaFrame] (@ii_CompanyID int)
RETURNS @tbl_MetaFrame TABLE ( pk_Key int Identity(1,1) primary key,
public static void FillRows(Object obj, out SqlString SOCIETA, out SqlString CLIENTE, out SqlString NUMEROCONTRATTO, out SqlDateTime FIRMA, out SqlDateTime CHIUSURA, SqlDouble AUTORIZZATO)
Whe I try to deploy my function, I get the following error:
Error 1 Function signature of "FillRow" method (as designated by SqlFunctionAttribute.FillRowMethodName) does not match SQL declaration for table valued CLR function 'dbf_Create_RiepilogoAccordi' due to column 6. CM.Reports.SIA.RiepilogoAccordi
I get this error whichever combination of name/value I use for column 6
I am using a multi-statement table-valued function to assemble data from several tables and views for a report. To do this, I INSERT data into the first few columns and then use UPDATEs to put data additional data into each row. Each UPDATE uses a WHERE criteria that identifies a unique row, based on the value of the first few columns.
The problem I'm having is that the UPDATEs are taking forever to execute. I believe the reason is that the temporary table that's created for the function is not indexed, so each row update requires a complete search of several columns.
In other situations I've been able to define one column as a primary key for the temporary table, but in this situation the primary key would have to consist of four columns, which doesn't seem to be allowed in the table definition for the function.
Is there any way to create indexes for the temporary tables that are created for multistatement table-valued functions? I think that would improve the UPDATE performance dramatically.
Hi everyone.I'd like to know how stored procedures and table-valued functions compare when it comes to returning a resultant set of data. I know there is a link somewhere but I can't immediately find it.Thanks.
