1. I have multiple "ItemId" and have their parent/child data. 2. Need to update only child's "ItemOrder". Example, if parent has order "1.00" then their child will be 1.01 & 1.02... and so on.
My current proc updates(updates using joins of two or three tables) millions of records as per the condition provided for each department.
However, when the proc fails it writes to a ErrorTable, ERROR_MESSAGE(), ERROR_SEVERITY() and which department has failed.
Since the records are updated keeping the selected departments in loop, I get the department in a temp variable.Now, I was asked to log the specific record where the failure was occured.Something like log the identity column value or primary key value which record has failed.
when i alter non identity column to identity column using this Query alter table testid alter column test int identity(1,1) then i got this error message Msg 156, Level 15, State 1, Line 3 Incorrect syntax near the keyword 'identity'.
I have table of three column first column is an ID column. However at creation of the table i have not set this column to auto increment. Then i have copied 50 rows in another table to this table then set the ID column values to zero.
Now I have changed the ID column to auto increment seed=1 increment=1 but the problem is i couldn't figure out how to update this ID column with zero value set to each row with this auto increment values so the ID column would have values from 1-50. Is there a away to do this?
I am new in sql server. I am using TSQL2012 database. I have added a new column in processedOrderCount in Hr.Employees table. And created a trigger on Sales.Orders table that whenever orderId is updated it automatically updated processedOrderCount in Hr.Employees. There is a problem that the orderId is the identity column I can't update it. How can we work with identity column? the code of my trigger is:
If Object_id ('Sales.trig_Calculate_OrderProcessed', 'tr') is not null Drop Trigger Sales.trig_Calculate_OrderProcessed go Create Trigger Sales.trig_Calculate_OrderProcessed ON Sales.Orders
In my database all columns have Identity Value as a PK.
Now today I check Index Fragmentation I saw that many cluster and Non cluster Index are avg.Fragmentation is around 99 % I thought that in Identity column record is always inserted at bottom so there is no fill factor assigned to it.
So in this case Do I need to set Fill factor for Cluster and Non Cluster Index?
If Yes Then For PK How much - 95 % or what? and same for Non cluster or It should around 85 to 90
I am writing an Instead of Insert trigger. I would like to fire an error when inserting into an 'Identity' column. Since UPDATE([ColumnName]) always returns TRUE for insert statements, is there an easy/fast way around this? I don't want to use:
IF(EXISTS(SELECT [i].[AS_ID] FROM [inserted] [i] WHERE [i].[AS_ID] IS NULL)) here is my pseudo-code... CREATE VIEW [org].[Assets] WITH SCHEMABINDING
[Code] .....
-- How does this statement need to be written to throw the error? --UPDATE([AS_ID]) always returns TRUE
IF(UPDATE([AS_ID])) RAISERROR('INSERT into the anchor identity column ''AS_ID'' is not allowed.', 16, 1) WITH NOWAIT;
-- Is there a faster/better method than this? IF(EXISTS(SELECT [i].[AS_ID] FROM [inserted] [i] WHERE [i].[AS_ID] IS NOT NULL)) RAISERROR('INSERT into the anchor identity column ''AS_ID'' is not allowed.', 16, 1) WITH NOWAIT;
-- Do Stuff END;
-- Should error for inserting into [AS_ID] field (which is an identity field) INSERT INTO [org].[Assets]([AS_ID], [Tag], [Name]) VALUES(1, 'f451', 'Paper burns'), (2, 'k505.928', 'Paper burns in Chemistry');
-- No error should occur INSERT INTO [org].[Assets]([Tag], [Name]) VALUES('f451', 'Paper burns'), ('k505.928', 'Paper burns in Chemistry');
i got a little problem. when i insert values into a table a trigger is launched wich updates something in the table too.
CREATE TRIGGER T1 ON Tbl FOR INSERT AS BEGIN IF (UPPER(USER) <> 'CONVERSIE') BEGIN UPDATE Tbl SET Datum = GetDate(), User = USER, WHERE Tbl.ID= (SELECT ID FROM inserted) END END
the error i receive is this: 'can not update identity column id' (id being pk).
I have a frustrating problem occuring in Sql 2005. We have the need in a few client upgrade situations to update the indentity column of a common resource table. It is populated each release with common records and the keys got out of sync for two releases due to developer error.
In Oracle this is not a problem. In SQL we get the message "Cannot update identity column 'mycolumn'". To get around this in SQL 2000 we updated the table by running the following.
exec sp_configure 'allow update', 1 go reconfigure with override go update syscolumns set colstat = colstat - 1 where id = object_id(Event') and name = 'EventKey' go exec sp_configure 'allow update', 0 go reconfigure with override go
In SQL 2005 this gives us the error
'Ad hoc updates to system catalogs are not allowed'.
Now I understand the need to keep people out of the system tables. However, can I have some sort of solution to this problem. I'm running a bunch of ad hoc queries to update the values and I don't want to create an exact duplicate of the table and copy over the information with the changes. It is much easier to run a simple update.
I set up replication on my DB between two server. The Publisher will not update tables on the Subscriber that use an identity column and I get an error "8102:cannot update identity column". I have looked around and can't seem to locate any solid fixes. If I remove the identity column from the subscribers tables the package works, but I am not able to use the DB on the subscriber because I need the Identity columns for my app to function properly. My Publisher and Subscriber are both running SQL Server 2000 Standard Edition SP3.
I'd set up Transactional Replication btw 2 servers running on MSSQL 2000.
However, from time to time, I encounter Error 8102. I try to reinitialise the subscription but failed. After I delete the current subscription and PUSH a new one, it will works fine again.
I'm curious why this is happening as I'd already set all the tables (articles) in the subscriber to "YES, not_for_replication".
We need to import data from flat/xml files into our database. we plan to do so in bulk as amount of data is huge, 2GB+ we need to do some validation checks in our code after that we create insert queries.
We have identity columns that are used as foreign keys in child tables. Question is how can I write a bulk/batch insert statement that will propogate the identity column to the child, as for all other we are creating the query in the application memory. there are 2 parent tables and 1st table value needs to be referred to in 7 tables and second table's value in 6.
I add new records to a table with ADO. The tables contain an auto-increment identity column. I want to retrieve the identity value after the insert operation. This works fine for SQL Server 2000. On SQL Server 2005 this only works if I use a table in the select statement. If I use a view in the select statement, ADO returns no value for the identity column, a trace with profiler shows that there is no Select @@IDENTITY statement.
What is the reason for this behavior?
How can I change this behavior in SQL 2005 so that the behavior is the same as in SQL Server 2000?
Hi, I am having problem in bulk update of a sql server table haning identity column from a datatable( has no identity column) using sqlbulkcopy. I tried several approaches, but it does not show any error nor is the table getting updated. But the identity value seems to getting increased every time. thanks. varun
I have a table that has two columns. One column has ID from 1 to 1800. The other column is null. I want to update the second column with values from 29 to 43. So for ID 1, value will be 29, ID value will 30 and it goes to 43. Then after it will start from 29 again and goes to 43. It goes all the way to the highest ID, i.e. 1800.I have added a script for better clarity
I have a Users Table. It is full of users already and I would like to start using the UserPIN in the software (this is an nvarchar column).
I would like to update the UserPIN column with the row_number. All of my efforts have resulted in setting the UserPIN to 1 for every record. I just want an update query that fill the UserPIN column in sequential order.
I upload data from a Txt File(Txt_Temp) where I have VinNumber with 6 digits. Another table name Resrve_Temp1 where I have Vinumber with 17 digit. Now I need to update the vinnumber 6 digit to 17 digit or to new column in Txt_temp.
Txt_Temp - Table
I tried this code with no succes and only one row is updating
update Txt_Temp Set Txt_Temp.Vinnumber=dbo.R_ResrvStock.Vin from dbo.R_ResrvStock inner join Txt_Temp on Right (dbo.R_ResrvStock.Vin,6)=Txt_Temp.VinNumber
OR Add this code in view
Select dbo.R_ResrvStock.Vin,R_Txt_Temp.Vinnumber,R_Txt_Te mp.Model_Code from dbo.R_ResrvStock inner join R_Txt_Temp on Right (dbo.R_ResrvStock.Vin,6)=R_Txt_Temp.VinNumber
I have a four tables called plandescription, plandetail and analysisdetail. The table plandescription has the columns DetailQuestionID which is the primary and identity column and a QuestionDescription column.
The table plandetail consists of the column PlanDetailID which the primary and identity column, DetailQuestionID which is the foreign key attribute of plandescription table and a planID column.
The third table analysisdetail consists of a analysisID which the primary and identity column, PlanDetailID which is the foreign key attribute of plandetail table and a scenario.
Below is the schema of the three tables
I have a two web form that will insert, update and delete data into these three tables in a two transaction. One web form will perform CRUD operations in plandescription and plandetail table. When the user inserts QuestionDescription and planid in this web form, I will insert the QuestionDescription Value in the plandescription table and will generate a DetailQuestionID value and this value is fed to the plandetail table with the planid. Here I will generate a PlanDetailID.
Once this transaction is done, I will show the second web form in which the user enters the scenario and this will be mapped with the plandescription using the PlanDetailID.
This schema cannot be changes as this is the client requirement. When I insert values I don’t have any problem. However when I update existing data, I need to delete existing PlanDetailID in the plandetail table and recreate PlanDetailID data for that DetailQuestionID and planID. This is because, the user will be adding or deleting a planID associated with the QuestionDescription.
Once I recreate PlanDetailID for that DetailQuestionID and planID, I need to update the old PlanDetailID with the new PlanDetailID in the third table analysisdetail for the associated analysisID.
I created a #Temp table called #DetailTable to insert the values analysisID, planid and old PlanDetailID and new PlanDetailID so that I can have them in update statement once I delete the data from plandetail table for that PlanDetailID.
Then I deleted the plandetailid from the plandetail table and recreate PlanDetailID for that DetailQuestionID. During my recreation I fetched the new PlanDetailID’s created into another temp table called #InsertedRows
After this I am running a while loop to update the temp table #DetailTable with the newly created PlanDetailID for the appropriate planID’s. The problem is here. When I have the same number of planID’s for example 2 planID’s 1,2 I will have only two old PlanDetailID and new PlanDetailID for that planID and analysisID.But When I add a new PlanID or remove a existing planID I am getting null value for that newly added or deleted planID. This is affecting my update statement of analysisdetail table as PlanDetailID cannot be null.
I tried to remove the Null value from the #DetailTable by running the update statement of analysis detail in a while loop however its not working.
DECLARE @categoryid INT = 8 DECLARE @DetailQuestionID INT = 1380 /*------- I need the query to run for the below three data. Here i'm updating my planids that already exists in my database*/ DECLARE @planids VARCHAR(MAX) = '2,4,5'
I have a column with XML data stored in it. I need to update that column several times with new values for different nodes. I've written a CLR function to update the XML quickly but the update is always based on the initial value of the xmlData column. I was hoping that the subsequent updates would be based on the new data from the prior update (each xmlTable has several newData rows). Do I have to make this a table valued function and use cross apply?
UPDATE xmlTable SET xmlTable.xmlData = Underwriting.UpdateByDynamicValue(xmlTable.xmlData,newData.NodeID,newData.NewValue) FROM xmlTable JOIN newData ON xmlTable.ID = newData.fkXmlTableID
I have a table with ~30M records. I'm trying to add a column to the existing table with default value and have noticed following ... When using alter with default value- (Executes more than 45 min and killed forcefully)
ex: ALTER TABLE dbo.Table_X Add is_Active BIT CONSTRAINT DF_Table_X_is_Active DEFAULT 'FALSE' NOT NULL GO
When using update command after adding column with alter (without default value) it completes is 5 min.
ex: ALTER TABLE dbo.Table_X Add is_Active BIT NULL GO UPDATE Table_X SET is_Active = 0 WHERE is_Active IS NULL GO
Why there is so much of difference in execution times ? I was just trying to understand internal behavior of the SQL in these two scenarios.
I am dynamically creating a job using sql script and it does work fine(It creates the job and when it's done it gets deleted as it's created dynamically. so I won't be having any job history at all in the system.). I want to update an existing table if the jobs fails and I am not sure how I can do that using t-sql script. Is that possible?I have an idea but not sure whether it works. In the job create script, can I include the code for if the job fails then go to step 2 and update the table column with the error??? If so, how can I retrieve the error???
I have 3 columns. I would like to update a table based on job_cd and permit_nbr column. if we have same job_cd and permit_nbr, reference number should be same else it should take max(reference number) from the table +1 for all rows where reference_nbr column is null
EmployeeAccess (MasterID, LoginID, AccessID, Storage1, Storage2, Storage3) that needs to be updated using the data in the following spreadsheet NewEmployeeAccessData (ID, MasterID, AccessID1, LoginID1)
There is a 1:1 relationship between the two tables..I'm trying to code a pair of update statements on the EmployeeAccess table (1 for LoginID, 1 for AccessID) with the following logic:
If LoginID is NULL, then Update LoginID with new LoginID1 value, If LoginID is not null, and Storage1 is NULL then Update Storage1 with New LoginID1 values If LoginID is not null, and Storage1 is not NULL and Storage2 is NULL then Update Storage2 with New LoginID1 values etc etc...
The same applies when trying to populate the AccessID column
If AccessID is NULL, then Update AccessID with new AccessID1 value, If AccessID is not null, and Storage1 is NULL then Update Storage1 with New AccessID1 values If AccessID is not null, and Storage1 is not NULL and Storage2 is NULL then Update Storage2 with New AccessID1 values etc etc.
I have no control over the schema of this table so I'm trying to work the logic on how to update the columns in my table only if the corresponding column data is NULL, else update the next non NULL Storage column.
I am trying to build a DIM table using a source table that has the following setup...
CREATE TABLE [dbo].[APPL_STATUSES]( [APPLICATIONS_ID] [varchar](10) NOT NULL, [POS] [decimal](10, 0) NOT NULL, [APPL_STATUS] [varchar](5) NULL, [APPL_STATUS_DATE] [datetime] NULL, [APPL_APPLICANT] [varchar](10) NULL) GO
[code]....
What I am trying to do is to break out the APPL_STATUS_DATE into a STATUS_START_DATE and an STATUS_END_DATE in a new table. I also need to be able to update the STATUS_END_DATE based on the previous day's date. Like so...
CREATE TABLE [dbo].[APPL_APPLICANT_STATUSES]( [APPLICATIONS_ID] [varchar](10) NOT NULL, [POS] [decimal](10, 0) NOT NULL, [APPL_STATUS] [varchar](5) NULL, [STATUS_START_DATE] [datetime] NULL, [STATUS_END_DATE] [datetime] NULL, [APPL_APPLICANT] [varchar](10) NULL) GO
Ok,I just need to know how to get the last record inserted by the highestIDENTITY number. Even if the computer was rebooted and it was twoweeks ago. (Does not have to do with the session).Any help is appreciated.Thanks,Trint
I've a table with two columns ITEMID and CHARGES. Multiple ITEMIDs with different CHARGES exists. I want to query TOP 10 CHARGES for each ITEMID in the table; how come i achieve this without typing the TOP 10 for each ITEMID in the table. The table has two many itemids and i want to view 10 for each with maximum charges.