Now we have different packages for 4 tables data loading. These 4 packages will start at a time. Before going to load the data we have to make the Flag to 1 and after that we have to load it. Because of this we have written Update statement to update the Value to 1 in respective Package.
Now we are getting dead lock because we are using same table at a same time. Because we are updating different records.
UPDATE #TempTableESR SET CTRLBudEng = (SELECT SUM(Salaries) from ProjectBudget WHERE Project = @Project)UPDATE #TempTableESR SET CTRLBudTravel = (SELECT SUM(Travels) from ProjectBudget WHERE Project = @Project)UPDATE #TempTableESR SET CTRLBudMaterials = (SELECT SUM(Materials) from ProjectBudget WHERE Project = @Project)UPDATE #TempTableESR SET CTRLBudOther = (SELECT SUM(Others) from ProjectBudget WHERE Project = @Project)UPDATE #TempTableESR SET CTRLBudContingency = (SELECT SUM(Contingency) from ProjectBudget WHERE Project = @Project)above is the UPDATE command i am using in one of my stored procedures. I have to SELECT from my ProjectBudget table 5 times to update my #TempTableESR table. is there an UPDATE command i can use which would let me update multiple fields in a table using one SELECT command?
Got a beginner question here... Let's say I have a database table that houses server information with four columns: make, model, serial #, ip address. And assume there are ten rows with that information filled out. How could I display all the rows of information on a single webpage (ASP.NET), with all the fields being editable; and a single save button that would send any changes to the database (in reality I guess it would be sending all rows and fields to the database, and just overwrite the previous data).
Could a page such as that be created using FrontPage 2003 or Dreamweaver MX 2004?
This would be strictly for updating information. I would have a separate form for adding a new entry.
I have a gridview with a sqlDataSource with the SelectCommand as "SELECT Movie.Title, Movie.Category, Movie.ReleaseDate, ItemForSale.Quantity, ItemForSale.HasUnLimitedQuantity FROM ItemForSale INNER JOIN Movie ON ItemForSale.ID = Movie.ID"
what kinda 'UpdateCommand' do I set so that ItemForSale is also updated from the grid? I tried two update statements seperated with a semicolon but that wouldn't work, any suggestions...
I am renovating an existing application and am converting the existing passwords into hashed values using SHA1. I know how to compute the hashed values as a byte array for each record. What I don't know how to do easily is update all of the records i a single call to the database. Normally, I would just do the following:UPDATE HashedPassword = someValue WHERE UserID = 101; UPDATE HashedPassword = someOtherValue WHERE UserID = 102; ...
What I don't know is what someValue and someOtherValue should be. How do I convert my byte array into string representation that SQL will accept? I usually execute multiple statements using Dim oCmd as New SqlCommand(sSQL, MyConn) and then call oCmd.ExecuteNonQuery(). Alternatively, I found the following code that uses the byte array directly but only shows a single statement. How could I use it to execute multiple statements as shown above?'FROM http://aspnet.4guysfromrolla.com/articles/103002-1.2.aspx
'2. Create a command object for the query Dim strSQL as String = _ "INSERT INTO UserAccount(Username,Password) " & _ "VALUES(@Username, @Password)" Dim objCmd as New SqlCommand(strSQL, objConn)
'3. Create parameters Dim paramUsername as SqlParameter paramUsername = New SqlParameter("@Username", SqlDbType.VarChar, 25) paramUsername.Value = txtUsername.Text objCmd.Parameters.Add(paramUsername)
Dim paramPwd as SqlParameter paramPwd = New SqlParameter("@Password", SqlDbType.Binary, 16) paramPwd.Value = hashedBytes objCmd.Parameters.Add(paramPwd)
'Insert the records into the database objConn.Open() objCmd.ExecuteNonQuery() objConn.Close()
I have created an SSIS package which processes daily financial information to a sql server database. These processes are to be outputted to excel spreadsheets to a readable report format for management to review. Some of these reports are laid out in a way that is not just tabular output but requires customized placement of data on an excel spreadsheet to specific cells.
I am able to place an initial resultset of a query output from the database in a tabular excel template through SSIS but the issue is at the end of that placement in the spreadsheet I am required to place another output below that tabular output in a different format from the initial output which I have shown below.
I am hoping someone can shed light on this odd behavior I am seeing running a simple UPDATE statement on a table in SQL Server 2000. I have 2 tables - call them Table1 and Table2 for now (among many) that need to have certain columns updated as part of a single transaction process. Each of the tables has many columns. I have purposely limited the target column for updating to only ONE of the columns in trying to isolate the issue. In one case the UPDATE runs fine against Table1... at runtime in code and as a manual query when run in QueryAnalyzer or in the Query window of SSManagementStudio - either way it works fine. However, when I run the UPDATE statement against Table2 - at runtime I get rowsaffected = 0 which of course forces the code to throw an Exception (logically). When I take out the SQL stmt and run it manually in Query Analyzer, it runs BUT this is the output seen in the results pane... (0 row(s) affected) (1 row(s) affected) How does on get 2 answers for one query like this...I have never seen such behavior and it is a real frustration ... makes no sense. There is only ONE row in the table that contains the key field passed in and it is the same key field value on the other table Table1 where the SQL returns only ONE message (the one you expect) (1 row(s) affected) If anyone has any ideas where to look next, I'd appreciate it. Thanks
A problem has come up in designing a Web page to maintain a small reference table in SQL Server 2000 (9 columns, about 25 records).
I tried to design the Web page to allow INSERT and UPDATE operations using a single page that posts back to itself. The page contains a set of empty form fields for a new record, followed by a set of filled-in form field for each row in the table. The form fields for existing records are given a unique name based on the field name concatenated with the primary key value for that row.
If I set up the page to INSERT only, it works properly. But when I add the fields for existing records, the INSERT operation malfunctions. Specifically, anytime a set of existing fields for a particular column is added to the page, the INSERT will no longer work properly for that column. This is true for all fields except the primary key field. It always INSERTs correctly. I tried adding only some columns to the set of existing form fields. In that case, the INSERT operation added the correct values for the fields that were not listed in the existing records section, but failed for the others.
I am using the INSERT INTO syntax for that operation and the recordset .Update syntax for the edits. I tried using the recordset .AddNew/.Update syntax for the insert, but it exhibited the same problems. The column data types contain smallint, bit, nvarchar, and ntext types.
I know that the correct values are being put into the INSERT statement. I also tried renaming the INSERT form fields to be totally different than the names of the existing record fields. But the problem comes back no matter what.
If necessary, I can split the logic so that inserts and updates are handled by different pages. But I would like to make this work if possible. If a reader knows why SQL Server is causing this problem, any help would be greatly appreciated.
update a tables value(a single column), based on a query of another database, using a common column.
Here's what I've cooked up so far:
Declare @trackingNo nvarchar (50) Set @trackingNo = ( select tracking_no from P21_Shipping.dbo.shipping_data t1 inner join P21.dbo.oe_hdr t2 on t1.order_no = t2.order_no
[Code] ...
print @trackingNoThe error it's returning is:
Msg 512, Level 16, State 1, Line 3 Subquery returned more than 1 value. This is not permitted when the subquery follows =, !=, <, <= , >, >= or when the subquery is used as an expression.
So, I'm wanting to query Shipping_data for order_No that matches the same orderNo column value in P21 Database(oe_hdr table), then update P21 oe_hdr table with "trackingNo from Shipping_data
question need help how can i use this code below not for insert i need it for update another table but only if exist the link to the code in this FORUM http://forums.microsoft.com/MSDN/AddPost.aspx?PostID=3208536&SiteID=1&Quote=True
Adam Haines wrote:
GPS,
Since you have such a dependency on dates and date calculations, you should implement a calendar table. A calendar table will make calculation such as this much more simplistic.
Calendar table link http://sqlserver2000.databases.aspfaq.com/why-should-i-consider-using-an-auxiliary-calendar-table.html.
Note the calendar table I use is a little different than this one. The only thing you will need to change is isodate to dt.
Now the code to get the results you need:
Code Snippet declare @t table( id int, fname char(4), Start_Date datetime, End_Date datetime, val_holiday int ) insert into @t values (111, 'aaaa', '3/15/2008', '03/21/2008', 1 ) insert into @t values (222, 'bbbb', '05/2/2008', '05/9/2008', 3) insert into @t values (333, 'cccc', '04/3/2008', '05/15/2008', 4) insert into @t values (333, 'cccc', '04/29/2008', '07/07/2008', 1 )
select id, fname, cal.ISODate, val_holiday from @t t1
inner join Calendar cal on cal.isodate >= t1.start_date and cal.ISODate <= t1.end_date
I am trying to build a DIM table using a source table that has the following setup...
CREATE TABLE [dbo].[APPL_STATUSES]( [APPLICATIONS_ID] [varchar](10) NOT NULL, [POS] [decimal](10, 0) NOT NULL, [APPL_STATUS] [varchar](5) NULL, [APPL_STATUS_DATE] [datetime] NULL, [APPL_APPLICANT] [varchar](10) NULL) GO
[code]....
What I am trying to do is to break out the APPL_STATUS_DATE into a STATUS_START_DATE and an STATUS_END_DATE in a new table. I also need to be able to update the STATUS_END_DATE based on the previous day's date. Like so...
CREATE TABLE [dbo].[APPL_APPLICANT_STATUSES]( [APPLICATIONS_ID] [varchar](10) NOT NULL, [POS] [decimal](10, 0) NOT NULL, [APPL_STATUS] [varchar](5) NULL, [STATUS_START_DATE] [datetime] NULL, [STATUS_END_DATE] [datetime] NULL, [APPL_APPLICANT] [varchar](10) NULL) GO
Dear All - iam facing a problem for passing a parameter to update paradox table statment in the OLE DB Command
Briefly an OLE DB Command exist between OLE DB Source and OLE DB destination , all i want it to send the data that flow from the OLE DB Source to the update paradox table statment in OLE DB Command ,
i use the parameter annotation which is "?" to refer to the parameter in the update where clause and it sucess when i use the OLE DB Command to connect to SQL Server DB but when i use it with the Paradox Table an error appear saying that there is more than one data source column with the name "?" The data source column names must be unique.
i dont know what that means is it means that "?" it consider "?" as a column or what or is there another way to send parameter to Update statment for the paradox table differ from the SQL Server Update statment which is the "? "
i hope someone help me as soon as possible because i need it in work sOOon Thanks, Maylo
I am having a problem on updating data in DB2 target table.
I followed BJ Custard's (http://forums.microsoft.com/MSDN/ShowPost.aspx?PostID=1058272&SiteID=1&mode=1)(thanks amillion!) post and configured OLEDB destination to insert data. But I have to also update or delete data from the target table based on flag from source.
I tried using OLEDB command which uses the OLEDB connection created by following the steps posted in above link.
Trail 1real requirement): When I used the SQL query:
delete from table where Col1=? and Col2=?
I am unable to map to the parameters. When I click refresh button after writing the query, I get "There is a data source column with no name. Each data source column must have a name." message. Added to before message, there are no parameters to map to.
Trail 2: When I hard code the parameters :
delete from table1 where Col1='abc' and Col2='xyz'
no parameters will come up, so no mapping. So when I execute the mapping I get the following error:
Error: 0xC0202009 at Load .....................................................: SSIS Error Code DTS_E_OLEDBERROR. An OLE DB error has occurred. Error code: 0x80040E00. Lookup on above error codes show those are related more to target Db2 database.
I am sure some one might have used the OLEDB command task, not only just insert task.
CREATE TABLE [dbo].[appl]( [app_id] [numeric](9, 0) IDENTITY(1,1) NOT NULL) CREATE TABLE [dbo].[appl_party]( [prty_id] [numeric](9, 0) NOT NULL, [app_id] [numeric](9, 0) NOT NULL) CREATE TABLE [dbo].[party]( [prty_id] [numeric](9, 0) IDENTITY(1,1) NOT NULL, [lockbyid] [char](8)
I want to update muliple rows in table "party" for column "lockbyid"
below is the update query with which i can only update one row but i need to update multiple rows in party table
update party set LOCKBYID ='abcd' where prty_id in (select distinct prty_id from sappl_party where app_id in (Select appl.app_id FROM appl INNER JOIN appl_party ON appl.app_id = appl_party.app_id where appl_party.prty_id=1234)) and LOCKBY_USR_ID is null
i am using visual web developer 2005 and SQL 2005 with VB as the code behindi am using INSERT command like this Dim test As New SqlDataSource() test.ConnectionString = ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings("DatabaseConnectionString1").ToString() test.InsertCommandType = SqlDataSourceCommandType.Text test.InsertCommand = "INSERT INTO try (roll,name, age, email) VALUES (@roll,@name, @age, @email) " test.InsertParameters.Add("roll", TextBox1.Text) test.InsertParameters.Add("name", TextBox2.Text) test.InsertParameters.Add("age", TextBox3.Text) test.InsertParameters.Add("email", TextBox4.Text) test.Insert() i am using UPDATE command like this Dim test As New SqlDataSource() test.ConnectionString = ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings("DatabaseConnectionString").ToString() test.UpdateCommandType = SqlDataSourceCommandType.Text test.UpdateCommand = "UPDATE try SET name = '" + myname + "' , age = '" + myage + "' , email = '" + myemail + "' WHERE roll 123 " test.Update()but i have to use the SELECT command like this which is completely different from INSERT and UPDATE commands Dim tblData As New Data.DataTable() Dim conn As New Data.SqlClient.SqlConnection("Data Source=.SQLEXPRESS;AttachDbFilename=|DataDirectory|Database.mdf;Integrated Security=True;User Instance=True") Dim Command As New Data.SqlClient.SqlCommand("SELECT * FROM try WHERE age = '100' ", conn) Dim da As New Data.SqlClient.SqlDataAdapter(Command) da.Fill(tblData) conn.Close() TextBox4.Text = tblData.Rows(1).Item("name").ToString() TextBox5.Text = tblData.Rows(1).Item("age").ToString() TextBox6.Text = tblData.Rows(1).Item("email").ToString() for INSERT and UPDATE commands defining the command,commandtype and connectionstring is samebut for the SELECT command it is completely different. why ?can i define the command,commandtype and connectionstring for SELECT command similar to INSERT and UPDATE ?if its possible how to do ?please help me
I have a table called ADSCHL which contains the school_code as Primary key and other two table as
RGDEGR(common field as SCHOOl_code) and RGENRl( Original_school_code) which are refrencing the ADSCHL. if a school_code will be updated both the table RGDEGR (school_code) and RGERNL ( original_schoolcode) has to be updated as well. I have been provided a new data that i have imported to SQL server using SSIS with table name as TESTCEP which has a column name school_code. I have been assigned a task to update the old school_code vale ( ADSCHL) with new school_code ( TESTCEP) and make sure the changes happen across all 3 tables.
I tried using Merge Update function not sure if this is going to work.
Update dbo.ADSCHL SET dbo.ADSCHL.SCHOOL_CODE = FD.SCHOOL_Code FROM dbo.ADSCHL AD INNER JOIN TESTCEP FD ON AD.SCHOOL_NAME = FD.School_Name
Hello,I am writing an application using Visual Studio .NET (C#). Theapplication will be run on several workstations simultaneously, andall of them will be accessing a single sql server database. I amtrying to have it so that when one of the applications updates thefields of a table in the database, all of the other applications arenotified (Without polling the DB).I have been trying to do this by using a SQL Trigger and callingRaisError from within. This will create an exception for the callingapplication (what i wanted), but I can get any of the otherapplications to see the error.Is there a way of accomplishing this using triggers? Is there anotherway of notifying all applications of a database change without the useof polling?James ChangJoin Bytes!
ID Flag TestDate Value Comment 111 2 12/15/2014 7.5 null 222 2 Null 10 received
Matrix_Current table could have 1 or multiple rows as below.
ID Flag TestDate Value Comment 111 2 01/26/2015 7.9 111 2 02/23/2015 7.9 111 2 04/07/2015 6.8 222 1 null 8 test comment 1 222 3 null 9 test comment 2
When I run below update
UPDATE AM SET M.Flag = MC.Flag, M.TestDate = MC.TestDate, M.Value = MC.Value, M.comment = MC.Comment FROM dbo.Matrix M inner join dbo.Matrix_Current MC on M.ID = MC.ID
Matrix table has value below:
ID Flag TestDate Value Comment 111 2 01/26/2015 7.9 222 1 Null 8 test comment 1
I want to update Matrix table from all row from Matrix_Current, final table would like below:
ID Flag TestDate Value Comment 111 2 04/07/2015 6.8 222 3 Null 9 test comment 2
Hi everyone. I am updating a table with aggregate results for multiplecolumns. Below is an example of how I approached this. It works finebut is pretty slow. Anyone have an idea how to increase performance.Thanks for any help.UPDATE #MyTableSET HireDate=(Select Min(Case When Code = 'OHDATE' then DateChangedelse null end)From HREHWhere #MyTable.HRCo=HREH.HRCo and#MyTable.HRRef=HREH.HRRef ),TerminationDate=(select Max(Case When Type = 'N' thenDateChanged else null end)From HREHWhere #MyTable.HRCo=HREH.HRCo and#MyTable.HRRef=HREH.HRRef ),ReHireDate=(select MAX(Case When Code = 'HIRE' thenDateChanged else null end)From HREHWhere #MyTable.HRCo=HREH.HRCo and #MyTable.HRRef=HREH.HRRef )
Hi SQL fans,I realized that I often encounter the same situation in a relationdatabase context, where I really don't know what to do. Here is anexample, where I have 2 tables as follow:__________________________________________ | PortfolioTitle|| Portfolio |+----------------------------------------++-----------------------------+ | tfolio_id (int)|| folio_id (int) |<<-PK----FK--| tfolio_idfolio (int)|| folio_name (varchar) | | tfolio_idtitle (int)|--FK----PK->>[ Titles]+-----------------------------+ | tfolio_weight(decimal(6,5)) |+-----------------------------------------+Note that I also have a "Titles" tables (hence the tfolio_idtitlelink).My problem is : When I update a portfolio, I must update all theassociated titles in it. That means that titles can be either removedfrom the portfolio (a folio does not support the title anymore), addedto it (a new title is supported by the folio) or simply updated (atitle stays in the portfolio, but has its weight changed)For example, if the portfolio #2 would contain :[ PortfolioTitle ]id | idFolio | idTitre | poids1 2 1 102 2 2 203 2 3 30and I must update the PortfolioTitle based on these values :idFolio | idTitre | poids2 2 202 3 352 4 40then I should1 ) remove the title #1 from the folio by deleting its entry in thePortfolioTitle table2 ) update the title #2 (weight from 30 to 35)3 ) add the title #4 to the folioFor now, the only way I've found to do this is delete all the entriesof the related folio (e.g.: DELETE TitrePortefeuille WHERE idFolio =2), and then insert new values for each entry based on the new givenvalues.Is there a way to better manage this by detecting which value has to beinserted/updated/deleted?And this applies to many situation :(If you need other examples, I can give you.thanks a lot!ibiza
I have a table where table row gets updated multiple times(each column will be filled) based on telephone call in data.
Initially, I have implemented after insert trigger on ROW level thinking that the whole row is inserted into table will all column values at a time. But the issue is all columns are values are not filled at once, but observed that while telephone call in data, there are multiple updates to the row (i.e multiple updates in the sense - column data in row is updated step by step),
I thought to implement after update trigger , but when it comes to the performance will be decreased for each and every hit while row update.
I need to implement after update trigger that should be fired on column level instead of Row level to improve the performance?
Hi,I have table with three columns as belowtable name:expNo(int) name(char) refno(int)I have data as belowNo name refno1 a2 b3 cI need to update the refno with no values I write a query as belowupdate exp set refno=(select no from exp)when i run the query i got error asSubquery returned more than 1 value. This is not permitted when thesubquery follows =, !=, <, <= , >, >= or when the subquery is used asan expression.I need to update one colum with other column value.What is the correct query for this ?Thanks,Mani
I have a table #vert where I have value column. This data needs to be updated into two channel columns in #hori table based on channel number in #vert table.
CREATE TABLE #Vert (FILTER VARCHAR(3), CHANNEL TINYINT, VALUE TINYINT) INSERT #Vert Values('ABC', 1, 22),('ABC', 2, 32),('BBC', 1, 12),('BBC', 2, 23),('CAB', 1, 33),('CAB', 2, 44) -- COMBINATION OF FILTER AND CHANNEL IS UNIQUE CREATE TABLE #Hori (FILTER VARCHAR(3), CHANNEL1 TINYINT, CHANNEL2 TINYINT) INSERT #Hori Values ('ABC', NULL, NULL),('BBC', NULL, NULL),('CAB', NULL, NULL) -- FILTER IS UNIQUE IN #HORI TABLE
One way to achieve this is to write two update statements. After update, the output you see is my desired output
UPDATE H SET CHANNEL1= VALUE FROM #Hori H JOIN #Vert V ON V.FILTER=H.FILTER WHERE V.CHANNEL=1 -- updates only channel1 UPDATE H SET CHANNEL2= VALUE FROM #Hori H JOIN #Vert V ON V.FILTER=H.FILTER WHERE V.CHANNEL=2 -- updates only channel2 SELECT * FROM #Hori -- this is desired output
my channels number grows in #vert table like 1,2,3,4...and so Channel3, Channel4....so on in #hori table. So I cannot keep writing too many update statements. One other way is to pivot #vert table and do single update into #hori table.
